TEST 1 COMPLETE

Question 1: What is the basic structural and functional unit of life?

**Options:**

(A) Tissue

(B) Cell

(D) System

**Correct Answer:** (B)

**Explanation:**

- **(A) Tissue**: A group of cells, not the basic unit.

- **(B) Cell**: The fundamental unit of life, capable of performing all life processes. This is the correct answer.

- **(C) Organ**: Composed of tissues, not the basic unit.

- **(D) System**: A group of organs, not the basic unit.

---

### Question 2: What is the diploid number of chromosomes in humans?

**Options:**

(A) 23

(B) 46

(D) 24

**Correct Answer:** (B)

**Explanation:**

- **(A) 23**: The haploid number (sperm/egg cells).

- **(B) 46**: The diploid number in humans, with 23 pairs of chromosomes. This is the correct answer.

- **(C) 48**: Incorrect, as this is not the human chromosome count.

- **(D) 24**: Incorrect, not the human diploid number.

---

### Question 3: What does the term "Dinosaurs" refer to?

**Options:**

(A) Prehistoric animals

(B) Modern animals

(D) Plants

**Correct Answer:** (A)

**Explanation:**

- **(A) Prehistoric animals**: Dinosaurs were a group of reptiles that lived millions of years ago, now extinct. This is the correct answer.

- **(B) Modern animals**: Dinosaurs are not extant.

- **(C) Microorganisms**: Dinosaurs were large vertebrates, not microbes.

- **(D) Plants**: Dinosaurs were animals, not plants.

---

### Question 4: Who discovered the cell and when?

**Options:**

(A) Robert Hooke in 1665

(B) Leeuwenhoek in 1674

(D) Schleiden and Schwann in 1839

**Correct Answer:** (A)

**Explanation:**

- **(A) Robert Hooke in 1665**: Discovered cells in cork using a microscope, coining the term "cell." This is the correct answer.

- **(B) Leeuwenhoek in 1674**: Observed living cells but did not coin the term.

- **(C) Robert Brown in 1831**: Discovered the nucleus, not the cell.

- **(D) Schleiden and Schwann in 1839**: Proposed cell theory, not the initial discovery.

---

### Question 5: What is the branch of science that studies cells?

**Options:**

(A) Cytology

(B) Anatomy

(D) Histology

**Correct Answer:** (A)

**Explanation:**

- **(A) Cytology**: The study of cells, making this the correct answer.

- **(B) Anatomy**: Study of body structure, not specifically cells.

- **(C) Physiology**: Study of body functions, not cells.

- **(D) Histology**: Study of tissues, not cells alone.

---

### Question 6: What is the smallest unit of life?

**Options:**

(A) Tissue

(B) Organ

(D) System

**Correct Answer:** (C)

**Explanation:**

- **(A) Tissue**: Made of cells, not the smallest unit.

- **(B) Organ**: Composed of tissues, larger than a cell.

- **(C) Cell**: The smallest structural and functional unit of life. This is the correct answer.

- **(D) System**: A group of organs, not the smallest unit.

---

### Question 7: What are proteins made up of?

**Options:**

(A) Amino acids

(B) Fatty acids

(D) Nucleotides

**Correct Answer:** (A)

**Explanation:**

- **(A) Amino acids**: Proteins are polymers of amino acids linked by peptide bonds. This is the correct answer.

- **(B) Fatty acids**: Components of lipids, not proteins.

- **(C) Glucose**: A carbohydrate unit, not a protein component.

- **(D) Nucleotides**: Building blocks of nucleic acids, not proteins.

---

### Question 8: Which organelle is known as the powerhouse of the cell?

**Options:**

(A) Nucleus

(B) Mitochondria

(D) Golgi apparatus

**Correct Answer:** (B)

**Explanation:**

- **(A) Nucleus**: The control center, not the powerhouse.

- **(B) Mitochondria**: Produces ATP via cellular respiration, known as the powerhouse. This is the correct answer.

- **(C) Ribosomes**: Sites of protein synthesis, not energy production.

- **(D) Golgi apparatus**: Modifies and packages proteins, not energy production.

---

### Question 9: Which organelle is known as the protein factory of the cell?

**Options:**

(A) Mitochondria

(B) Ribosomes

(D) Lysosomes

**Correct Answer:** (B)

**Explanation:**

- **(A) Mitochondria**: Produces energy, not proteins.

- **(B) Ribosomes**: The site where proteins are synthesized using mRNA. This is the correct answer.

- **(C) Nucleus**: Contains DNA, not protein synthesis.

- **(D) Lysosomes**: Breaks down waste, not protein synthesis.

---

### Question 10: Which organelle is known as the suicidal bag of the cell?

**Options:**

(A) Mitochondria

(B) Lysosomes

(D) Endoplasmic reticulum

**Correct Answer:** (B)

**Explanation:**

- **(A) Mitochondria**: Energy producer, not a suicidal bag.

- **(B) Lysosomes**: Contain digestive enzymes that can destroy cell components, earning the "suicidal bag" title. This is the correct answer.

- **(C) Golgi apparatus**: Protein packaging, not digestion.

- **(D) Endoplasmic reticulum**: Protein synthesis, not digestion.

---

### Question 11: What is the stage of cell division where the cytoplasm divides?

**Options:**

(A) Mitosis

(B) Meiosis

(D) Prophase

**Correct Answer:** (C)

**Explanation:**

- **(A) Mitosis**: Nuclear division, not cytoplasm division.

- **(B) Meiosis**: Produces gametes, includes cytokinesis but is broader.

- **(C) Cytokinesis**: The process where the cytoplasm divides to form two daughter cells. This is the correct answer.

- **(D) Prophase**: Early stage of nuclear division, not cytoplasm division.

---

### Question 12: What is the process of cell division called?

**Options:**

(A) Mitosis

(B) Photosynthesis

(D) Digestion

**Correct Answer:** (A)

**Explanation:**

- **(A) Mitosis**: The process of cell division to produce identical daughter cells. This is the correct answer.

- **(B) Photosynthesis**: Plant energy production, not cell division.

- **(C) Respiration**: Energy release, not cell division.

- **(D) Digestion**: Food breakdown, not cell division.

---

### Question 13: What is the sampling method?

**Options:**

(A) Random sampling

(B) Systematic sampling

(D) Cluster sampling

**Correct Answer:** None specified; likely (A) based on context.

**Explanation:**

- The question is incomplete, but "sampling method" in biology often refers to **random sampling** for studying populations.

- **(A) Random sampling**: Each individual has an equal chance, commonly used.

- **(B) Systematic sampling**: Based on a fixed interval, less common.

- **(C) Stratified sampling**: Divides into subgroups, specific use.

- **(D) Cluster sampling**: Groups into clusters, specific use.

- Without clarity, (A) is a reasonable default.

---

### Question 14: What is the process of natural selection?

**Options:**

(A) Survival of the fittest

(B) Mutation

(D) Gene flow

**Correct Answer:** (A)

**Explanation:**

- **(A) Survival of the fittest**: Natural selection favors organisms best adapted to their environment, a core concept. This is the correct answer.

- **(B) Mutation**: Random genetic changes, part of evolution but not the process itself.

- **(C) Genetic drift**: Random change in gene frequency, not natural selection.

- **(D) Gene flow**: Transfer of genes between populations, not selection.

---

### Question 15: What is the basic unit of heredity?

**Options:**

(A) Gene

(B) Chromosome

(D) RNA

**Correct Answer:** (A)

**Explanation:**

- **(A) Gene**: The basic unit of heredity, encoding specific traits. This is the correct answer.

- **(B) Chromosome**: Contains genes, not the unit itself.

- **(C) DNA**: The molecule carrying genetic information, contains genes.

- **(D) RNA**: Involved in protein synthesis, not the hereditary unit.

---

### Question 16: What is the scientific name of the common housefly?

**Options:**

(A) Drosophila melanogaster

(B) Musca domestica

(D) Culex pipiens

**Correct Answer:** (B)

**Explanation:**

- **(A) Drosophila melanogaster**: Fruit fly, not housefly.

- **(B) Musca domestica**: The scientific name for the common housefly. This is the correct answer.

- **(C) Anopheles stephensi**: Malaria mosquito, not housefly.

- **(D) Culex pipiens**: Another mosquito species, not housefly.

---

### Question 17: What is the term for the evolutionary history of an organism?

**Options:**

(A) Phylogeny

(B) Ontogeny

(D) Morphology

**Correct Answer:** (A)

**Explanation:**

- **(A) Phylogeny**: The evolutionary history and relationships of organisms. This is the correct answer.

- **(B) Ontogeny**: Development of an individual organism, not history.

- **(C) Taxonomy**: Classification, not evolutionary history.

- **(D) Morphology**: Study of form, not history.

---

### Question 18: What is the evidence for evolution?

**Options:**

(A) Fossil records

(B) Anatomical evidence

(D) All of the above

**Correct Answer:** (D)

**Explanation:**

- **(A) Fossil records**: Show evolutionary changes over time.

- **(B) Anatomical evidence**: Includes homologous structures.

- **(C) Embryological evidence**: Shows similarities in early development.

- **(D) All of the above**: All provide evidence for evolution. This is the correct answer.

---

### Question 19: What is the term for the survival of the fittest?

**Options:**

(A) Adaptation

(B) Natural selection

(D) Evolution

**Correct Answer:** (B)

**Explanation:**

- **(A) Adaptation**: A result of natural selection, not the term itself.

- **(B) Natural selection**: The process where the fittest survive, coined by Darwin. This is the correct answer.

- **(C) Mutation**: Genetic change, not survival.

- **(D) Evolution**: The outcome, not the specific term.

---

### Question 20: What is the term for the evolution of new species?

**Options:**

(A) Adaptation

(B) Speciation

(D) Gene flow

**Correct Answer:** (B)

**Explanation:**

- **(A) Adaptation**: Adjustment to environment, not new species.

- **(B) Speciation**: The process of forming new species. This is the correct answer.

- **(C) Genetic drift**: Random gene frequency change, not speciation.

- **(D) Gene flow**: Gene transfer, not speciation.

---

### Question 21: What is the term for the survival of species over generations?

**Options:**

(A) Evolution

(B) Natural selection

(D) Mutation

**Correct Answer:** (A)

**Explanation:**

- **(A) Evolution**: The gradual change and survival of species over generations. This is the correct answer.

- **(B) Natural selection**: A mechanism of evolution, not the term itself.

- **(C) Adaptation**: A trait aiding survival, not the process.

- **(D) Mutation**: A genetic change, not survival over generations.

---

### Question 22: What is the chewed food called in the mouth?

**Options:**

(A) Chyme

(B) Bolus

(D) Chyle

**Correct Answer:** (B)

**Explanation:**

- **(A) Chyme**: Semi-fluid mass in the stomach, not the mouth.

- **(B) Bolus**: The mass of food formed and chewed in the mouth. This is the correct answer.

- **(C) Feces**: Waste excreted, not food in the mouth.

- **(D) Chyle**: Lymphatic fluid with fats, not chewed food.

---

### Question 23: What is the term for the movement of food in the digestive system?

**Options:**

(A) Peristalsis

(B) Digestion

(D) Assimilation

**Correct Answer:** (A)

**Explanation:**

- **(A) Peristalsis**: The wave-like muscle contractions moving food through the digestive tract. This is the correct answer.

- **(B) Digestion**: Breakdown of food, not movement.

- **(C) Absorption**: Nutrient uptake, not movement.

- **(D) Assimilation**: Nutrient use by cells, not movement.

---

### Question 24: Who proposed the theory of evolution?

**Options:**

(A) Charles Darwin

(B) Lamarck

(D) Wallace

**Correct Answer:** (A)

**Explanation:**

- **(A) Charles Darwin**: Proposed the theory of evolution by natural selection. This is the correct answer.

- **(B) Lamarck**: Proposed inheritance of acquired characteristics, not the main theory.

- **(C) Mendel**: Known for genetics, not evolution.

- **(D) Wallace**: Co-proposed natural selection with Darwin, but Darwin is primary.

---

### Question 25: What is the term for the survival of the fittest in a population?

**Options:**

(A) Natural selection

(B) Adaptation

(D) Speciation

**Correct Answer:** (A)

**Explanation:**

- **(A) Natural selection**: The process where the fittest individuals survive and reproduce. This is the correct answer.

- **(B) Adaptation**: A trait resulting from selection, not the process.

- **(C) Mutation**: Genetic change, not survival.

- **(D) Speciation**: Formation of new species, not survival.

---

Question 26: What are the building blocks of proteins?

Options:
(A) Amino acids
(B) Carbohydrates
(C) Nucleic acids
(D) Fatty acids

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:

(A) Amino acids: Proteins are made up of chains of amino acids linked by peptide bonds. This is the correct answer.
(B) Carbohydrates: These are sugars and starches, not protein building blocks.
(C) Nucleic acids: These form DNA and RNA, not proteins.
(D) Fatty acids: These are components of lipids, not proteins.

Question 27: What are the building blocks of carbohydrates?

Options:
(A) Glucose molecules
(B) Protein molecules
(C) Amino acids
(D) Fatty acids

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:

(A) Glucose molecules: Carbohydrates are composed of monosaccharide units like glucose, which link to form larger molecules. This is the correct answer.
(B) Protein molecules: These are made of amino acids, not carbohydrates.
(C) Amino acids: Building blocks of proteins, not carbohydrates.
(D) Fatty acids: Components of lipids, not carbohydrates.

Question 28: What are mitochondria known as?

Options:
(A) Powerhouse
(B) Cell wall
(C) Nucleus
(D) Cytoplasm

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:

(A) Powerhouse: Mitochondria are called the powerhouse of the cell because they produce energy (ATP) through cellular respiration. This is the correct answer.
(B) Cell wall: Found in plant cells, not a function of mitochondria.
(C) Nucleus: The control center of the cell, not mitochondria.
(D) Cytoplasm: The fluid inside the cell, not a specific organelle.

Question 29: What are the building blocks of nucleic acids?

Options:
(A) Fatty acids
(B) Nucleotides
(C) Amino acids
(D) Glucose

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:

(A) Fatty acids: Components of lipids, not nucleic acids.
(B) Nucleotides: Nucleic acids (DNA and RNA) are made up of nucleotide units (sugar, phosphate, and base). This is the correct answer.
(C) Amino acids: Building blocks of proteins, not nucleic acids.
(D) Glucose: A monosaccharide, part of carbohydrates, not nucleic acids.

Question 30: What is a cell?

Options:
(A) Cytology
(B) Histology
(C) Physiology
(D) Anatomy

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:

(A) Cytology: The study of cells, making this the correct answer.
(B) Histology: The study of tissues, not cells specifically.
(C) Physiology: The study of body functions, not cells.
(D) Anatomy: The study of body structure, not cells.

Question 31: Who is considered the father of biology?

Options:
(A) Robert Hooke
(B) Fleming
(C) Louis Pasteur
(D) Darwin

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:

(A) Robert Hooke: Known for discovering cells in 1665 using a microscope, earning him the title "father of biology" or "father of microscopy." This is the correct answer.
(B) Fleming: Discovered penicillin but not a founder of biology.
(C) Louis Pasteur: Contributed to microbiology but not the originator of biology.
(D) Darwin: Known for evolution theory, not the father of biology.

Question 32: What is the control center of the cell?

Options:
(A) Mitochondria
(B) Nucleus
(C) Ribosomes
(D) Endoplasmic reticulum

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:

(A) Mitochondria: Produces energy, not the control center.
(B) Nucleus: Contains DNA and controls cell activities, making this the correct answer.
(C) Ribosomes: Sites of protein synthesis, not the control center.
(D) Endoplasmic reticulum: Involved in protein and lipid synthesis, not control.

Question 33: Which organelle helps in protein synthesis?

Options:
(A) Ribosomes
(B) Golgi apparatus
(C) Lysosomes
(D) Mitochondria

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:

(A) Ribosomes: The site where proteins are synthesized using mRNA. This is the correct answer.
(B) Golgi apparatus: Modifies and packages proteins, not synthesis.
(C) Lysosomes: Breaks down waste, not protein synthesis.
(D) Mitochondria: Produces energy, not protein synthesis.

Question 34: Which organelle is known as the suicidal bag of the cell?

Options:
(A) Mitochondria
(B) Lysosomes
(C) Golgi apparatus
(D) Endoplasmic reticulum

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:

(A) Mitochondria: Energy producer, not a suicidal bag.
(B) Lysosomes: Contain hydrolytic enzymes that can digest cell components, earning them the "suicidal bag" title. This is the correct answer.
(C) Golgi apparatus: Involved in protein packaging, not digestion.
(D) Endoplasmic reticulum: Involved in synthesis, not digestion.

Question 35: Which organelle is responsible for respiration in the cell?

Options:
(A) Lysosomes
(B) Ribosomes
(C) Mitochondria
(D) Nucleus

Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:

(A) Lysosomes: Digest waste, not respiration.
(B) Ribosomes: Synthesize proteins, not respiration.
(C) Mitochondria: The site of cellular respiration, producing ATP. This is the correct answer.
(D) Nucleus: Controls cell activities, not respiration.

Question 36: Which part of the cell is known as the powerhouse?

Options:
(A) Nucleus
(B) Mitochondria
(C) Ribosomes
(D) Golgi apparatus

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:

(A) Nucleus: The control center, not the powerhouse.
(B) Mitochondria: Known as the powerhouse due to ATP production via respiration. This is the correct answer.
(C) Ribosomes: Protein synthesis site, not energy production.
(D) Golgi apparatus: Protein modification site, not energy production.

Question 37: What is the stage of cell division where chromosomes align at the center?

Options:
(A) Metaphase
(B) Anaphase
(C) Prophase
(D) Telophase

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:

(A) Metaphase: Chromosomes align at the metaphase plate during mitosis. This is the correct answer.
(B) Anaphase: Chromosomes are pulled apart to opposite poles.
(C) Prophase: Chromosomes condense and become visible.
(D) Telophase: Chromosomes reach the poles and decondense.

Question 38: What is the jelly-like substance inside the cell?

Options:
(A) Cytoplasm
(B) Nucleus
(C) Mitochondria
(D) Endoplasmic reticulum

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:

(A) Cytoplasm: The jelly-like fluid within the cell membrane, containing organelles. This is the correct answer.
(B) Nucleus: The control center, not the entire substance.
(C) Mitochondria: Energy-producing organelle, not the substance.
(D) Endoplasmic reticulum: A network within the cytoplasm, not the substance itself.

Question 39: How much of the cell cycle is spent in the interphase stage?

Options:
(A) Interphase
(B) Cytokinesis
(C) Metaphase
(D) Anaphase

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:

(A) Interphase: The longest phase of the cell cycle (about 90–95%), where the cell grows and DNA replicates. This is the correct answer.
(B) Cytokinesis: The division of cytoplasm, a brief phase.
(C) Metaphase: A short phase of chromosome alignment.
(D) Anaphase: A short phase of chromosome separation.

Question 40: What is the sampling method used to study cell structure under a microscope?

Options:
(A) J1
(B) J5
(C) C4
(D) D2

Correct Answer: None of the options are clear; likely a document error.
Explanation:

The options (J1, J5, C4, D2) do not correspond to known sampling methods for microscopy (e.g., smear, sectioning). This may be an OCR error. Typically, methods like histological sectioning or smear preparation are used. Without context, no definitive answer can be selected.

Question 41: What is the method to study cell structure using a chemical stain?

Options:
(A) A2
(B) J5
(C) C4
(D) D6

Correct Answer: None of the options are clear; likely a document error.
Explanation:

The options (A2, J5, C4, D6) do not specify a method. Staining techniques like Hematoxylin and Eosin (H&E) or Gram staining are used to study cell structure. This is likely an OCR error, so no definitive answer can be selected.

Question 42: What is the method to study cell function?

Options:
(A) Chemical staining
(B) Physical staining
(C) Electron microscopy
(D) None of these

Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:

(A) Chemical staining: Highlights cell structure, not function.
(B) Physical staining: Not a standard term; likely a misinterpretation.
(C) Electron microscopy: Allows detailed observation of cell ultrastructure, aiding functional studies. This is the correct answer.
(D) None of these: Incorrect, as electron microscopy is applicable.

Question 43: What is the main source of protein in the human body?

Options:
(A) Nucleic acids
(B) Carbohydrates
(C) Lipids
(D) Proteins

Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:

(A) Nucleic acids: Form DNA/RNA, not a protein source.
(B) Carbohydrates: Provide energy, not proteins.
(C) Lipids: Provide fats, not proteins.
(D) Proteins: The main dietary source of protein for the body (e.g., meat, eggs). This is the correct answer.

Question 44: How many amino acids are essential for humans?

Options:
(A) 10
(B) 15
(C) 20
(D) 25

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:

(A) 10: Humans require 9 essential amino acids (histidine, isoleucine, leucine, lysine, methionine, phenylalanine, threonine, tryptophan, valine), with some sources including arginine as essential in certain contexts, totaling around 10. This is the correct answer.
(B) 15: Too high, as only 9–10 are essential.
(C) 20: Total amino acids are 20, but only some are essential.
(D) 25: Far too high.

Question 45: How much protein is required daily for an adult male?

Options:
(A) 50–60 grams
(B) 60–70 grams
(C) 70–80 grams
(D) 80–90 grams

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:

(A) 50–60 grams: The recommended daily protein intake for an average adult male (based on 0.8 g/kg body weight for a 60–75 kg person) is approximately 50–60 grams. This is the correct answer.
(B) 60–70 grams: Slightly above average for most adults.
(C) 70–80 grams: Higher than the standard recommendation.
(D) 80–90 grams: Excessive for most, unless for athletes.

Question 46: What is the building block of proteins?

Options:
(A) Sugar in protein
(B) Amino acids
(C) Nucleic acids
(D) Fatty acids

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:

(A) Sugar in protein: Not a standard term; proteins do not contain sugar as a building block.
(B) Amino acids: Proteins are composed of amino acids linked by peptide bonds. This is the correct answer.
(C) Nucleic acids: Building blocks of DNA/RNA, not proteins.
(D) Fatty acids: Components of lipids, not proteins.

Question 47: What is the jelly-like substance inside the cell?

Options:
(A) Cytoplasm
(B) Nucleus
(C) Mitochondria
(D) Endoplasmic reticulum

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:

(A) Cytoplasm: The jelly-like fluid within the cell, containing organelles. This is the correct answer.
(B) Nucleus: The control center, not the entire substance.
(C) Mitochondria: Energy-producing organelle, not the substance.
(D) Endoplasmic reticulum: A network within the cytoplasm, not the substance itself.

Question 48: What is the main source of carbohydrates in the human body?

Options:
(A) Proteins
(B) Carbohydrates
(C) Lipids
(D) Nucleic acids

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:

(A) Proteins: Provide amino acids, not carbohydrates.
(B) Carbohydrates: The primary source (e.g., from grains, fruits), broken down into glucose. This is the correct answer.
(C) Lipids: Provide fats, not carbohydrates.
(D) Nucleic acids: Form DNA/RNA, not carbohydrates.

Question 49: Which part of the digestive system has the highest hydrochloric acid concentration?

Options:
(A) Stomach
(B) Small intestine
(C) Large intestine
(D) Esophagus

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:

(A) Stomach: Produces hydrochloric acid (pH 1.5–3.5) to aid digestion. This is the correct answer.
(B) Small intestine: Alkaline due to bile and pancreatic juices.
(C) Large intestine: Neutral to slightly alkaline.
(D) Esophagus: Transports food, no significant acid production.

Question 50: Which part of the cell is most affected by a viral infection?

Options:
(A) Nucleus
(B) Cytoplasm
(C) Mitochondria
(D) Cell membrane

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:

(A) Nucleus: Viruses often target the nucleus to hijack DNA/RNA for replication. This is the correct answer.
(B) Cytoplasm: Site of some viral replication but not the primary target.
(C) Mitochondria: Affected indirectly, not the main target.
(D) Cell membrane: Entry point, but not the most affected part.

Question 51: How many types of teeth are there in the human mouth?

Options:
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 3

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:

(A) 4: Humans have four types of teeth—incisors, canines, premolars, and molars. This is the correct answer.
(B) 5: Incorrect, no fifth type exists.
(C) 6: Incorrect, exceeds the number of tooth types.
(D) 3: Incorrect, as it excludes premolars or molars.

Question 52: Which vitamin deficiency causes night blindness?

Options:
(A) Vitamin A
(B) Vitamin B
(C) Vitamin C
(D) Vitamin D

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:

(A) Vitamin A: Deficiency leads to night blindness due to impaired retinal function. This is the correct answer.
(B) Vitamin B: Deficiency causes various issues (e.g., beriberi), not night blindness.
(C) Vitamin C: Deficiency causes scurvy, not night blindness.
(D) Vitamin D: Deficiency causes rickets, not night blindness.

Question 53: Which vitamin deficiency causes rickets?

Options:
(A) Vitamin A
(B) Vitamin B
(C) Vitamin C
(D) Vitamin D

Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:

(A) Vitamin A: Causes night blindness, not rickets.
(B) Vitamin B: Causes neurological issues, not rickets.
(C) Vitamin C: Causes scurvy, not rickets.
(D) Vitamin D: Deficiency leads to rickets, causing bone deformities. This is the correct answer.

Question 54: Which vitamin deficiency causes scurvy?

Options:
(A) Vitamin A
(B) Vitamin B
(C) Vitamin C
(D) Vitamin D

Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:

(A) Vitamin A: Causes night blindness, not scurvy.
(B) Vitamin B: Causes various issues, not scurvy.
(C) Vitamin C: Deficiency causes scurvy, marked by bleeding gums and poor healing. This is the correct answer.
(D) Vitamin D: Causes rickets, not scurvy.

Question 55: What is the scientific name of Vitamin A?

Options:
(A) Retinol
(B) Ascorbic acid
(C) Thiamine
(D) Tocopherol

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:

(A) Retinol: The scientific name for Vitamin A, essential for vision. This is the correct answer.
(B) Ascorbic acid: Vitamin C, not A.
(C) Thiamine: Vitamin B1, not A.
(D) Tocopherol: Vitamin E, not A.

Question 56: Which vitamin is fat-soluble?

Options:
(A) Vitamin A
(B) Vitamin B
(C) Vitamin C
(D) Vitamin D

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:

(A) Vitamin A: Fat-soluble, stored in the liver. This is the correct answer.
(B) Vitamin B: Mostly water-soluble (except B12 to some extent).
(C) Vitamin C: Water-soluble.
(D) Vitamin D: Fat-soluble, but the question likely expects A as the primary example.

Question 57: Which vitamin deficiency causes sterility or infertility?

Options:
(A) Vitamin A
(B) Vitamin K
(C) Vitamin E
(D) Vitamin D

Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:

(A) Vitamin A: Deficiency leads to night blindness and skin issues, not sterility.
(B) Vitamin K: Deficiency affects blood clotting, not reproduction.
(C) Vitamin E: Known as the "fertility vitamin," its deficiency can cause reproductive issues, including sterility, in both males and females. This is the correct answer.
(D) Vitamin D: Deficiency causes bone disorders like rickets, not sterility.

Question 58: Which vitamin deficiency causes pellagra?

Options:
(A) Niacin
(B) Vitamin B5
(C) Vitamin B2
(D) Vitamin B12

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:

(A) Niacin: Pellagra, characterized by dermatitis, diarrhea, and dementia, is caused by a deficiency of niacin (Vitamin B3). This is the correct answer.
(B) Vitamin B5: Deficiency of Vitamin B5 (pantothenic acid) may cause fatigue but not pellagra.
(C) Vitamin B2: Deficiency of Vitamin B2 (riboflavin) causes ariboflavinosis, affecting the mouth and skin, not pellagra.
(D) Vitamin B12: Deficiency causes pernicious anemia, not pellagra.

Question 59: Which vitamin is best obtained from sunlight?

Options:
(A) Vitamin A
(B) Vitamin B2
(C) Vitamin C
(D) Vitamin D

Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:

(A) Vitamin A: Obtained from dietary sources like carrots, not sunlight.
(B) Vitamin B2: Sourced from foods like dairy, not sunlight.
(C) Vitamin C: Found in fruits like citrus, not produced by sunlight.
(D) Vitamin D: Known as the "sunshine vitamin," it is synthesized in the skin upon exposure to sunlight (UVB rays). This is the correct answer.

Question 60: Which vitamin deficiency causes scurvy?

Options:
(A) Vitamin A
(B) Vitamin C
(C) Vitamin D
(D) Vitamin K

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:

(A) Vitamin A: Deficiency causes night blindness, not scurvy.
(B) Vitamin C: Scurvy, characterized by bleeding gums and poor wound healing, results from Vitamin C deficiency. This is the correct answer.
(C) Vitamin D: Deficiency causes bone disorders like rickets, not scurvy.
(D) Vitamin K: Deficiency affects blood clotting, not scurvy.

Question 61: Which vitamin is excreted in urine in humans?

Options:
(A) Vitamin A
(B) Vitamin C
(C) Vitamin K
(D) Vitamin D

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:

(A) Vitamin A: Fat-soluble, stored in the body, not typically excreted in urine.
(B) Vitamin C: Water-soluble, excess is excreted in urine, making this the correct answer.
(C) Vitamin K: Fat-soluble, stored in the body, not excreted in urine.
(D) Vitamin D: Fat-soluble, stored in the body, not excreted in urine.

Question 62: Which vitamin deficiency causes bone deformities in children?

Options:
(A) Vitamin A
(B) Vitamin B
(C) Vitamin C
(D) Vitamin D

Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:

(A) Vitamin A: Deficiency causes vision and skin issues, not bone deformities.
(B) Vitamin B: Deficiency of B vitamins causes various issues (e.g., beriberi), but not bone deformities.
(C) Vitamin C: Deficiency causes scurvy, not bone deformities.
(D) Vitamin D: Deficiency causes rickets in children, leading to bone deformities like bowed legs. This is the correct answer.

Question 63: What is the scientific name of Vitamin B12?

Options:
(A) Riboflavin
(B) Thiamine
(C) Pyridoxine
(D) Cyanocobalamin

Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:

(A) Riboflavin: This is Vitamin B2, not B12.
(B) Thiamine: This is Vitamin B1, not B12.
(C) Pyridoxine: This is Vitamin B6, not B12.
(D) Cyanocobalamin: This is the scientific name for Vitamin B12, often used in supplements. This is the correct answer.

Question 64: How many teeth are there in the human mouth, including wisdom teeth?

Options:
(A) 16
(B) 32
(C) 64
(D) 28

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:

(A) 16: Incorrect, as this is half the number of adult teeth.
(B) 32: An adult human has 32 teeth, including 4 wisdom teeth (third molars). This is the correct answer.
(C) 64: Incorrect, far too high for human teeth.
(D) 28: This is the number of teeth excluding wisdom teeth, but the question includes them.

Question 65: What is the dental formula of permanent teeth in humans?

Options:
(A) 2123/2123
(B) 2102/2102
(C) 1202/1202
(D) 1101/1102

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:

(A) 2123/2123: This represents the dental formula for permanent teeth in adults: 2 incisors, 1 canine, 2 premolars, 3 molars per quadrant (upper/lower). This is the correct answer.
(B) 2102/2102: This is the dental formula for milk teeth, not permanent teeth.
(C) 1202/1202: Incorrect, as it does not match human teeth.
(D) 1101/1102: Incorrect, as it does not match human teeth.

Question 66: How many milk teeth are there in a human child?

Options:
(A) 22
(B) 20
(C) 28
(D) 32

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:

(A) 22: Incorrect, as children have fewer milk teeth.
(B) 20: A human child has 20 milk (deciduous) teeth, which are later replaced by permanent teeth. This is the correct answer.
(C) 28: Incorrect, as this is the number of permanent teeth excluding wisdom teeth.
(D) 32: Incorrect, as this is the total number of permanent teeth.

Question 67: What is the hardest part of the human body?

Options:
(A) Bone
(B) Cartilage
(C) Tooth enamel
(D) Dentin

Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:

(A) Bone: Strong but not the hardest; it can be broken.
(B) Cartilage: Flexible and softer than bone or enamel.
(C) Tooth enamel: The hardest substance in the human body, composed of 96% mineral (hydroxyapatite), protecting teeth. This is the correct answer.
(D) Dentin: The layer beneath enamel, softer than enamel.

Question 68: What is the dental formula of milk teeth?

Options:
(A) 2102/2102
(B) 2102/1102
(C) 1202/1202
(D) 1101/1102

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:

(A) 2102/2102: This is the dental formula for milk teeth: 2 incisors, 1 canine, 0 premolars, 2 molars per quadrant. This is the correct answer.
(B) 2102/1102: Incorrect, as it does not match the symmetrical structure of milk teeth.
(C) 1202/1202: Incorrect, as it does not match milk teeth.
(D) 1101/1102: Incorrect, as it does not match milk teeth.

Question 69: Which part of the human tongue is most sensitive to sweetness?

Options:
(A) Tip
(B) Middle
(C) Sides
(D) Back

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:

(A) Tip: The tip of the tongue is most sensitive to sweet tastes due to the distribution of taste buds. This is the correct answer.
(B) Middle: Less sensitive to sweetness, more to other tastes.
(C) Sides: More sensitive to sour and salty tastes.
(D) Back: More sensitive to bitter tastes.

Question 70: In which part of the human mouth are bitter tastes most perceived?

Options:
(A) Tip
(B) Middle
(C) Back
(D) Sides

Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:

(A) Tip: More sensitive to sweetness, not bitterness.
(B) Middle: Less sensitive to bitterness.
(C) Back: The back of the tongue is most sensitive to bitter tastes, helping detect potential toxins. This is the correct answer.
(D) Sides: More sensitive to sour and salty tastes.

Question 71: How many taste buds are there on the human tongue?

Options:
(A) 2000 to 8000
(B) 5000 to 10000
(C) 1 million to 10 million
(D) More than 10 million

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:

(A) 2000 to 8000: The human tongue has approximately 2000 to 8000 taste buds, varying by individual. This is the correct answer.
(B) 5000 to 10000: Slightly above the typical range.
(C) 1 million to 10 million: Far too high for taste buds.
(D) More than 10 million: Incorrect, as taste buds number in the thousands.

Question 72: What is the main digestive enzyme in saliva?

Options:
(A) Amylase
(B) Pepsin
(C) Trypsin
(D) Lipase

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:

(A) Amylase: Salivary amylase (ptyalin) begins the digestion of starches in the mouth, breaking them into sugars. This is the correct answer.
(B) Pepsin: Found in the stomach, digests proteins.
(C) Trypsin: Found in the small intestine, digests proteins.
(D) Lipase: Digests fats, primarily in the small intestine.

Question 73: Which part of the digestive system is the longest?

Options:
(A) Esophagus
(B) Stomach
(C) Small intestine
(D) Large intestine

Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:

(A) Esophagus: About 25 cm long, relatively short.
(B) Stomach: A sac-like organ, not the longest.
(C) Small intestine: Measures about 6–7 meters in length, making it the longest part of the digestive system. This is the correct answer.
(D) Large intestine: About 1.5 meters, shorter than the small intestine.

Question 74: What is the main source of protein in the human body?

Options:
(A) Bread
(B) Milk
(C) Eggs
(D) Fish

Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:

(A) Bread: Primarily a carbohydrate source, low in protein.
(B) Milk: Contains protein but not as concentrated as eggs.
(C) Eggs: A complete protein source with all essential amino acids, making them a primary protein source. This is the correct answer.
(D) Fish: High in protein but not as universally consumed as eggs.

Question 75: What is the main source of carbohydrates in the human body?

Options:
(A) Proteins
(B) Nucleic acids
(C) Lipids
(D) Carbohydrates

Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:

(A) Proteins: Provide amino acids, not carbohydrates.
(B) Nucleic acids: Form DNA/RNA, not a carbohydrate source.
(C) Lipids: Provide fats, not carbohydrates.
(D) Carbohydrates: The primary source of carbohydrates in the body, obtained from foods like grains and sugars. This is the correct answer.

Question 76: What are the main sources of fats in the human body?

Options:
(A) Proteins
(B) Lipids
(C) Sugars
(D) Nucleic acids

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:

(A) Proteins: Not a source of fats.
(B) Lipids: Lipids (fats and oils) are the main source of fats in the body, found in foods like butter and oils. This is the correct answer.
(C) Sugars: Provide carbohydrates, not fats.
(D) Nucleic acids: Not related to fat sources.

Question 77: What is the main source of energy in the human body?

Options:
(A) Fats
(B) Proteins
(C) Carbohydrates
(D) Nucleic acids

Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:

(A) Fats: Provide energy but are a secondary source compared to carbohydrates.
(B) Proteins: Used for energy only when carbohydrates and fats are depleted.
(C) Carbohydrates: The primary and most efficient source of energy, broken down into glucose. This is the correct answer.
(D) Nucleic acids: Not an energy source.

Question 78: Which gas is produced in the human stomach during digestion?

Options:
(A) Oxygen
(B) Nitrogen
(C) Carbon dioxide
(D) Hydrogen

Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:

(A) Oxygen: Used in respiration, not produced in the stomach.
(B) Nitrogen: Not produced during digestion.
(C) Carbon dioxide: Produced as a byproduct of digestion, especially during fermentation of food in the stomach. This is the correct answer.
(D) Hydrogen: Produced in small amounts during fermentation but not the primary gas.

Question 79: Which part of the human body has the highest concentration of oxygen?

Options:
(A) Lungs
(B) Heart
(C) Brain
(D) Kidneys

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:

(A) Lungs: The lungs oxygenate blood, making them the site of the highest oxygen concentration during inhalation. This is the correct answer.
(B) Heart: Pumps oxygenated blood but has less oxygen concentration than the lungs.
(C) Brain: Requires oxygen but receives it via blood, not directly.
(D) Kidneys: Receive oxygenated blood but have less concentration than the lungs.

Question 80: What is the main source of energy for the human body during digestion?

Options:
(A) Proteins
(B) Lipids
(C) Nucleic acids
(D) Carbohydrates

Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:

(A) Proteins: Not the primary energy source during digestion.
(B) Lipids: Provide energy but are slower to digest.
(C) Nucleic acids: Not an energy source.
(D) Carbohydrates: The main source of energy during digestion, quickly broken down into glucose. This is the correct answer.

Question 81: Which part of the human body is the most affected by diabetes?

Options:
(A) Gallbladder
(B) Pancreas
(C) Liver
(D) Stomach

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:

(A) Gallbladder: Not primarily affected by diabetes.
(B) Pancreas: Diabetes results from the pancreas’s inability to produce or utilize insulin effectively, making it the most affected organ. This is the correct answer.
(C) Liver: Affected by diabetes but secondary to the pancreas.
(D) Stomach: Not directly related to diabetes.

Question 82: What is the most important digestive enzyme in the stomach?

Options:
(A) Pepsin
(B) Amylase
(C) Lipase
(D) Trypsin

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:

(A) Pepsin: The main enzyme in the stomach, breaking down proteins into peptides. This is the correct answer.
(B) Amylase: Found in saliva, digests carbohydrates.
(C) Lipase: Primarily in the small intestine, digests fats.
(D) Trypsin: Found in the small intestine, digests proteins.

Question 83: What is the scientific name of the digestive enzyme pepsin?

Options:
(A) Amylase
(B) Pepsin
(C) Trypsin
(D) Lipase

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:

(A) Amylase: A different enzyme, digests carbohydrates.
(B) Pepsin: Pepsin is its scientific name, a protease enzyme in the stomach. This is the correct answer.
(C) Trypsin: A different enzyme, found in the small intestine.
(D) Lipase: Digests fats, not related to pepsin.

Question 84: Which part of the human body develops acidity during digestion?

Options:
(A) Mouth
(B) Stomach
(C) Small intestine
(D) Large intestine

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:

(A) Mouth: Has a neutral to slightly alkaline pH due to saliva.
(B) Stomach: Produces hydrochloric acid to aid digestion, leading to acidity (pH 1.5–3.5). This is the correct answer.
(C) Small intestine: More alkaline due to bile and pancreatic secretions.
(D) Large intestine: Neutral to slightly alkaline, not acidic.

Question 85: How many times does the human heart beat per minute on average?

Options:
(A) 12 to 16 beats
(B) 60 to 75 beats
(C) 5 to 7 beats
(D) 20 to 25 beats

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:

(A) 12 to 16 beats: Too low for a human heart rate.
(B) 60 to 75 beats: The average resting heart rate for adults is 60–100 beats per minute, with 60–75 being typical. This is the correct answer.
(C) 5 to 7 beats: Far too low, indicating a medical emergency.
(D) 20 to 25 beats: Too low for a healthy heart rate.

Question 86: What is the scientific name of oxygen in the blood?

Options:
(A) Hemoglobin
(B) Bilirubin

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:

(A) Hemoglobin: Hemoglobin is the protein in red blood cells that binds and transports oxygen in the blood. This is the correct answer.
(B) Bilirubin: A byproduct of red blood cell breakdown, not related to oxygen transport.

Question 57: Which vitamin deficiency causes night blindness?

Options:
(A) Vitamin A
(B) Vitamin K
(C) Vitamin E
(D) Vitamin D

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:

(A) Vitamin A: Deficiency leads to night blindness (nyctalopia) due to impaired retinal function. This is the correct answer.
(B) Vitamin K: Deficiency affects blood clotting, not vision.
(C) Vitamin E: Deficiency impacts nerve and muscle function, not vision.
(D) Vitamin D: Deficiency causes bone disorders like rickets, not night blindness.

Question 58: Which vitamin deficiency causes bleeding disorders?

Options:
(A) Vitamin B12
(B) Vitamin C
(C) Vitamin K
(D) Vitamin A

Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:

(A) Vitamin B12: Deficiency causes pernicious anemia, not bleeding disorders.
(B) Vitamin C: Deficiency causes scurvy, which includes bleeding gums but is not primarily a clotting issue.
(C) Vitamin K: Essential for blood clotting, its deficiency leads to excessive bleeding. This is the correct answer.
(D) Vitamin A: Deficiency affects vision, not clotting.

Question 59: Which vitamin deficiency causes rickets in children?

Options:
(A) Vitamin A
(B) Vitamin B6
(C) Vitamin C
(D) Vitamin D

Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:

(A) Vitamin A: Deficiency causes night blindness, not rickets.
(B) Vitamin B6: Deficiency causes neurological issues, not rickets.
(C) Vitamin C: Deficiency causes scurvy, not rickets.
(D) Vitamin D: Deficiency leads to rickets in children, characterized by soft and deformed bones due to poor calcium absorption. This is the correct answer.

Question 60: Which vitamin deficiency causes scurvy?

Options:
(A) Vitamin A
(B) Vitamin C
(C) Vitamin D
(D) Vitamin K

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:

(A) Vitamin A: Deficiency causes night blindness, not scurvy.
(B) Vitamin C: Scurvy, marked by bleeding gums, poor wound healing, and fatigue, results from Vitamin C deficiency. This is the correct answer.
(C) Vitamin D: Deficiency causes rickets, not scurvy.
(D) Vitamin K: Deficiency affects clotting, not scurvy.

Question 61: Which vitamin is water-soluble and excreted in urine?

Options:
(A) Vitamin A
(B) Vitamin B12
(C) Vitamin C
(D) Vitamin D

Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:

(A) Vitamin A: Fat-soluble, stored in the liver, not excreted in urine.
(B) Vitamin B12: Water-soluble but largely stored in the body, with minimal excretion.
(C) Vitamin C: Water-soluble, excess is excreted in urine, making this the correct answer.
(D) Vitamin D: Fat-soluble, stored in fatty tissues, not excreted in urine.

Question 62: Which vitamin deficiency causes bone deformities in children?

Options:
(A) Vitamin A
(B) Vitamin B
(C) Vitamin C
(D) Vitamin D

Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:

(A) Vitamin A: Deficiency affects vision, not bones.
(B) Vitamin B: Deficiency causes various issues (e.g., beriberi), not bone deformities.
(C) Vitamin C: Deficiency causes scurvy, not bone deformities.
(D) Vitamin D: Deficiency leads to rickets, causing bone deformities in children. This is the correct answer.

Question 63: What is the chemical name of Vitamin B12?

Options:
(A) Riboflavin
(B) Thiamine
(C) Pyridoxine
(D) Cyanocobalamin

Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:

(A) Riboflavin: Vitamin B2, not B12.
(B) Thiamine: Vitamin B1, not B12.
(C) Pyridoxine: Vitamin B6, not B12.
(D) Cyanocobalamin: The chemical name for Vitamin B12, used in medical contexts. This is the correct answer.

Question 64: How many chambers are there in the human heart?

Options:
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 2

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:

(A) 3: Incorrect, as the human heart has four chambers.
(B) 4: The human heart has four chambers—two atria and two ventricles—allowing for efficient blood circulation. This is the correct answer.
(C) 5: Incorrect, as this is not anatomically accurate.
(D) 2: Incorrect, as some animals have two-chambered hearts, but humans do not.

Question 65: How many valves are there in the human heart?

Options:
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5

Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:

(A) 2: Incorrect, as the heart has more than two valves.
(B) 3: Incorrect, as the heart has four valves.
(C) 4: The human heart has four valves—tricuspid, pulmonary, mitral, and aortic—regulating blood flow. This is the correct answer.
(D) 5: Incorrect, as there are only four valves.

Question 66: How many bones are there in the human body?

Options:
(A) 206
(B) 200
(C) 208
(D) 210

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:

(A) 206: An adult human body typically has 206 bones, including the skull, spine, and limbs. This is the correct answer.
(B) 200: Close but slightly below the standard count.
(C) 208: Incorrect, as this exceeds the typical number.
(D) 210: Incorrect, as this exceeds the typical number.

Question 67: How many muscles are there in the human body?

Options:
(A) 640
(B) 600
(C) 650
(D) 620

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:

(A) 640: The human body has approximately 640 muscles, including skeletal, smooth, and cardiac types. This is the correct answer.
(B) 600: Slightly below the estimated number.
(C) 650: Slightly above the estimated number.
(D) 620: Below the typical count.

Question 68: What is the normal blood pressure of a healthy human?

Options:
(A) 120/80 mmHg
(B) 110/70 mmHg
(C) 130/90 mmHg
(D) 100/60 mmHg

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:

(A) 120/80 mmHg: The normal blood pressure for a healthy adult is approximately 120/80 mmHg (systolic/diastolic). This is the correct answer.
(B) 110/70 mmHg: Slightly below normal, acceptable for some individuals.
(C) 130/90 mmHg: Above normal, indicating prehypertension.
(D) 100/60 mmHg: Below normal, indicating possible hypotension.

Question 69: What is the approximate weight of an adult human liver?

Options:
(A) 1.2 to 1.5 kg
(B) 1.0 to 1.2 kg
(C) 1.5 to 1.8 kg
(D) 0.8 to 1.0 kg

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:

(A) 1.2 to 1.5 kg: The average weight of an adult human liver is approximately 1.2–1.5 kg, making this the correct answer.
(B) 1.0 to 1.2 kg: Slightly below the average weight.
(C) 1.5 to 1.8 kg: Slightly above the average weight.
(D) 0.8 to 1.0 kg: Too low for an adult liver.

Question 70: How much blood is there in an adult human body?

Options:
(A) 4 to 5 liters
(B) 3 to 4 liters
(C) 5 to 6 liters
(D) 2 to 3 liters

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:

(A) 4 to 5 liters: The average blood volume in an adult human body is about 4.5–5 liters (about 7–8% of body weight). This is the correct answer.
(B) 3 to 4 liters: Below the average for an adult.
(C) 5 to 6 liters: Slightly above the average for most adults.
(D) 2 to 3 liters: Too low for an adult human.

Question 87: What is cutaneous respiration?

Options:
(A) Anaerobic respiration
(B) Respiratory system
(C) Aerobic respiration
(D) Respiration through the skin

Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:

(A) Anaerobic respiration: Occurs without oxygen, not related to cutaneous respiration.
(B) Respiratory system: Refers to the entire system (e.g., lungs), not specifically skin-based respiration.
(C) Aerobic respiration: Involves oxygen but is not specific to skin respiration.
(D) Respiration through the skin: Cutaneous respiration is the process where gases are exchanged through the skin, common in amphibians. This is the correct answer.

Question 88: In which part of the human body is the appendix located?

Options:
(A) Upper right
(B) Lower right
(C) Lower left
(D) Upper left

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:

(A) Upper right: Incorrect, as the appendix is not in the upper right quadrant.
(B) Lower right: The appendix is located in the lower right quadrant of the abdomen, near the cecum. This is the correct answer.
(C) Lower left: Incorrect, as this is the opposite side.
(D) Upper left: Incorrect, as it is not in the upper left quadrant.

Question 89: Which organ in the human body acts as a blood filter?

Options:
(A) Liver
(B) Kidney
(C) Pancreas
(D) Spleen

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:

(A) Liver: Detoxifies blood but is not primarily a filter for waste removal.
(B) Kidney: Filters blood to remove waste products and excess substances, forming urine. This is the correct answer.
(C) Pancreas: Produces digestive enzymes and insulin, not a blood filter.
(D) Spleen: Filters blood by removing old red blood cells, but its role is secondary to the kidneys.

Question 90: In which part of the human body is the pituitary gland located?

Options:
(A) Brain
(B) Neck
(C) Chest
(D) Abdomen

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:

(A) Brain: The pituitary gland, often called the "master gland," is located at the base of the brain, just below the hypothalamus. This is the correct answer.
(B) Neck: Incorrect, as the thyroid gland is in the neck.
(C) Chest: Incorrect, as the heart and lungs are in the chest.
(D) Abdomen: Incorrect, as digestive organs like the liver are in the abdomen.

Question 91: What is the approximate weight of an adult human brain?

Options:
(A) 1.3–1.4 kg
(B) 0.9–1.0 kg
(C) 1.5–1.6 kg
(D) 1.1–1.2 kg

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:

(A) 1.3–1.4 kg: The average weight of an adult human brain is approximately 1.3–1.4 kg (about 3 pounds), making this the correct answer.
(B) 0.9–1.0 kg: Too light for an adult brain.
(C) 1.5–1.6 kg: Slightly heavier than the average adult brain weight.
(D) 1.1–1.2 kg: Below the typical range for an adult brain.

Question 92: What is the normal body temperature of a human?

Options:
(A) 35°C
(B) 36.6°C
(C) 38°C
(D) 37°C

Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:

(A) 35°C: Below normal, indicating hypothermia.
(B) 36.6°C: Close to normal but slightly below the standard average.
(C) 38°C: Above normal, indicating a possible fever.
(D) 37°C: The average normal body temperature of a human is 37°C (98.6°F), making this the correct answer.

Question 93: What is the pH value of human blood?

Options:
(A) 6.4
(B) 7.4
(C) 7.2
(D) 7.0

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:

(A) 6.4: Too acidic for blood, which would indicate a serious condition.
(B) 7.4: The normal pH of human blood is approximately 7.4, slightly alkaline, making this the correct answer.
(C) 7.2: Slightly below normal, indicating mild acidosis.
(D) 7.0: Neutral pH, too low for blood’s healthy range.

Question 94: Which vitamin deficiency causes scurvy?

Options:
(A) Vitamin A
(B) Vitamin C
(C) Vitamin D
(D) Vitamin E

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:

(A) Vitamin A: Deficiency causes night blindness, not scurvy.
(B) Vitamin C: Scurvy, characterized by bleeding gums and poor wound healing, results from Vitamin C deficiency. This is the correct answer.
(C) Vitamin D: Deficiency causes rickets or osteomalacia, not scurvy.
(D) Vitamin E: Deficiency affects reproduction and nerve function, not scurvy.

Question 95: What is the pH value of human saliva?

Options:
(A) 6.6
(B) 8.6
(C) 7.2
(D) 7.3

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:

(A) 6.6: The normal pH of human saliva is approximately 6.6, slightly acidic, aiding digestion. This is the correct answer.
(B) 8.6: Too alkaline for saliva.
(C) 7.2: Slightly above the normal range for saliva.
(D) 7.3: Close but slightly higher than the typical saliva pH.

Question 96: What is the largest gland in the human body?

Options:
(A) Liver
(B) Pancreas
(C) Thyroid
(D) Spleen

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:

(A) Liver: The liver is the largest gland in the human body, weighing about 1.5 kg, and performs numerous metabolic functions. This is the correct answer.
(B) Pancreas: Smaller than the liver, weighing about 0.1 kg.
(C) Thyroid: A small gland in the neck, much smaller than the liver.
(D) Spleen: An organ that filters blood but is not a gland and smaller than the liver.

Question 97: What is the scientific name of the human species?

Options:
(A) Homo sapiens
(B) Homo erectus
(C) Homo neanderthalensis
(D) Homo habilis

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:

(A) Homo sapiens: The scientific name for modern humans, meaning "wise man." This is the correct answer.
(B) Homo erectus: An extinct human ancestor, not the current species.
(C) Homo neanderthalensis: An extinct species or subspecies related to humans.
(D) Homo habilis: An early human ancestor, not the modern species.

Question 98: What is the normal pulse rate of an adult human?

Options:
(A) 60–80 beats per minute
(B) 90–100 beats per minute
(C) 50–60 beats per minute
(D) 100–120 beats per minute

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:

(A) 60–80 beats per minute: The normal resting pulse rate for an adult human is 60–80 beats per minute, making this the correct answer.
(B) 90–100 beats per minute: Above normal, indicating possible tachycardia.
(C) 50–60 beats per minute: Within normal range for some fit individuals but below the average.
(D) 100–120 beats per minute: Above normal, indicating a potential health issue.

Question 99: How many molar teeth are there in the human mouth?

Options:
(A) 8
(B) 12
(C) 6
(D) 4

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:

(A) 8: Incorrect, as adults have more than 8 molars (including wisdom teeth).
(B) 12: An adult human has 12 molars (3 on each side of the upper and lower jaws), including 4 wisdom teeth. This is the correct answer.
(C) 6: Incorrect, as this is fewer than the total number of molars.
(D) 4: Incorrect, as this represents only the wisdom teeth, not the total molars.

Polity Questions (100–107)

Question 100: Which part of the human urinary system is known as the urethra?

Options:
(A) Mūtrāmrga (Urethra)
(B) Mūtravāhini (Ureter)
(C) Mūtrapūraka (Bladder)
(D) Mūtrakūpa (Renal pelvis)

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:

(A) Mūtrāmrga (Urethra): The urethra is the tube that carries urine from the bladder out of the body. This is the correct answer.
(B) Mūtravāhini (Ureter): The ureters transport urine from the kidneys to the bladder.
(C) Mūtrapūraka (Bladder): The bladder stores urine before excretion.
(D) Mūtrakūpa (Renal pelvis): The renal pelvis is part of the kidney where urine collects.

Question 101: When did the British Parliament pass an act to establish a Governor-General in India?

Options:
(A) 1793 by Charter Act
(B) 1833 by Charter Act

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:

(A) 1793 by Charter Act: This act renewed the East India Company’s charter but did not establish the Governor-General position.
(B) 1833 by Charter Act: The Charter Act of 1833 designated the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor-General of India, centralizing power under Lord William Bentinck. This is the correct answer.

Question 102: When was the first census conducted in India by the British?

Options:
(A) British Parliament, 1861
(B) British Government, 1919
(C) British Parliament, 1892
(D) British Government, 1909

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:

(A) British Parliament, 1861: The first official census in India was conducted in 1861 under British rule, marking the beginning of systematic population data collection. This is the correct answer.
(B) British Government, 1919: Incorrect, as the census was conducted earlier.
(C) British Parliament, 1892: Incorrect, as no census occurred this year.
(D) British Government, 1909: Incorrect, as the next major census was in 1911.

Question 103: When did the British Government enact an act to establish a legislative council in India?

Options:
(A) British Government, 1935
(B) British Government, 1919
(C) British Parliament, 1909
(D) British Parliament, 1892

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:

(A) British Government, 1935: The Government of India Act, 1935, established provincial autonomy and legislative councils, making this the correct answer.
(B) British Government, 1919: The Government of India Act, 1919, introduced dyarchy but did not fully establish legislative councils.
(C) British Parliament, 1909: The Morley-Minto Reforms (1909) expanded legislative councils but were less comprehensive.
(D) British Parliament, 1892: The Indian Councils Act, 1892, increased Indian representation but did not establish councils as in 1935.

Question 104: When was the first election held in India after independence?

Options:
(A) 1961 AD
(B) 1917 AD
(C) 1919 AD
(D) 1915 AD

Correct Answer: None of the options are correct; the first election was in 1951–1952.
Explanation:

(A) 1961 AD: Incorrect, as elections had already occurred.
(B) 1917 AD: Incorrect, as this was pre-independence.
(C) 1919 AD: Incorrect, as this was pre-independence.
(D) 1915 AD: Incorrect, as this was pre-independence.
Note: The first general election in independent India was held from 25 October 1951 to 21 February 1952. The options are incorrect.

Question 105: Who was the first Chief Election Commissioner of India after independence?

Options:
(A) Sukhdev Prasad
(B) Sukumar Sen
(C) Ram Nath Vyas
(D) Rameshwar Dayal

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:

(A) Sukhdev Prasad: Not a known Chief Election Commissioner.
(B) Sukumar Sen: Sukumar Sen was the first Chief Election Commissioner of India, appointed in 1950, overseeing the first general election. This is the correct answer.
(C) Ram Nath Vyas: Not a known Chief Election Commissioner.
(D) Rameshwar Dayal: Not a known Chief Election Commissioner.

Question 106: What was the title of the first Governor-General of independent India?

Options:
(A) Mountbatten Supreme
(B) Bharti-Vishwavid Supreme
(C) Governor-General of India
(D) Governor and Chief of India

Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:

(A) Mountbatten Supreme: Incorrect, though Lord Mountbatten was the last Viceroy and first Governor-General.
(B) Bharti-Vishwavid Supreme: Not a recognized title.
(C) Governor-General of India: Lord Mountbatten served as the first Governor-General of independent India from 15 August 1947 to 21 June 1948. This is the correct answer.
(D) Governor and Chief of India: Not a recognized title.

Question 107: Match the following Chief Election Commissioners with their tenures:

List 1 (Chief Election Commissioners):
(A) Sukumar Sen
(B) Nagendra Singh
(C) K.V.K. Sundaram
(D) T. Swaminathan

List 2 (Tenures):
I. 1958–1967
II. 1950–1958
III. 1958
IV. 1967–1972

Options:
(A) I, II, III, IV
(B) II, I, III, IV
(C) III, IV, II, I
(D) IV, III, II, I

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:

(A) Sukumar Sen: Served from 1950 to 1958 (II).
(B) Nagendra Singh: Served from 1958 to 1967 (I).
(C) K.V.K. Sundaram: Served in 1958 (III), briefly overlapping with Singh.
(D) T. Swaminathan: Served from 1967 to 1972 (IV).
Options Analysis:
- (A) I, II, III, IV: Incorrect (Nagendra Singh, Sukumar Sen, Sundaram, Swaminathan).
- (B) II, I, III, IV: Correct (Sukumar Sen 1950–1958, Nagendra Singh 1958–1967, Sundaram 1958, Swaminathan 1967–1972).
- (C) III, IV, II, I: Incorrect.
- (D) IV, III, II, I: Incorrect.
  Question 108: Who is required to be a member of the Constitution Drafting Committee of India?
  
  Options:
  (A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
  (B) Jawaharlal Nehru
  (C) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
  (D) Purushottam Das Tandon
  
  Correct Answer: (C)
  Explanation:
  - (A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad: He was the President of the Constituent Assembly but not a member of the Drafting Committee.
  - (B) Jawaharlal Nehru: Nehru was a key member of the Constituent Assembly and later India’s first Prime Minister, but he was not on the Drafting Committee.
  - (C) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar: Ambedkar was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution, making him a required member. This is the correct answer.
  - (D) Purushottam Das Tandon: Tandon was a prominent Congress leader and later President of the Indian National Congress, but he was not part of the Drafting Committee.
  Question 109: Who was the temporary chairman of the Constituent Assembly of India?
  
  Options:
  (A) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
  (B) Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha
  (C) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
  (D) Dr. Radhakrishnan
  
  Correct Answer: (B)
  Explanation:
  - (A) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar: Ambedkar chaired the Drafting Committee, not the Constituent Assembly as a temporary chairman.
  - (B) Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha: Sinha was the interim President of the Constituent Assembly during its first meeting on December 9, 1946, making him the temporary chairman. This is the correct answer.
  - (C) Dr. Rajendra Prasad: Prasad was elected as the permanent President of the Constituent Assembly on December 11, 1946, after Sinha.
  - (D) Dr. Radhakrishnan: Radhakrishnan (Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan) was a philosopher and later President of India, but he did not serve as temporary chairman.
  Question 110: What was the total number of members in the Constituent Assembly of India?
  
  Options:
  (A) 10
  (B) 12
  (C) 13
  (D) 15
  
  Correct Answer: None of the options are correct; the actual number was 389 (later reduced to 299).
  Explanation:
  - (A) 10: Incorrect, as the Constituent Assembly had far more members.
  - (B) 12: Incorrect, far too low.
  - (C) 13: Incorrect, far too low.
  - (D) 15: Incorrect, far too low.
  - Note: The Constituent Assembly originally had 389 members, but after the partition of India, the number reduced to 299 due to the separation of members representing areas that became Pakistan. The options provided are incorrect, likely due to a typo or OCR error.
  Question 111: On which date did the Constituent Assembly of India first meet?
  
  Options:
  (A) 10 July 1946
  (B) 09 December 1946
  (C) 26 November 1949
  (D) 26 December 1949
  
  Correct Answer: (B)
  Explanation:
  - (A) 10 July 1946: Incorrect, as the Assembly was not yet formed.
  - (B) 09 December 1946: The Constituent Assembly held its first meeting on this date, with Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha as the temporary chairman. This is the correct answer.
  - (C) 26 November 1949: This is the date the Constitution was adopted, not the first meeting.
  - (D) 26 December 1949: Incorrect, as the Constitution came into effect on 26 January 1950.
  Question 112: In which state was the first Constituent Assembly formed in a princely state?
  
  Options:
  (A) Jawaharlal Nehru
  (B) Kiran Desai
  (C) K.M. Singh
  (D) K.M. Munshi
  
  Correct Answer: None of the options are correct; the question likely intends to ask about a state, not a person.
  Explanation:
  - (A) Jawaharlal Nehru: Nehru was a person, not a state.
  - (B) Kiran Desai: Desai is a person (possibly a writer), not a state.
  - (C) K.M. Singh: Likely a person, not a state.
  - (D) K.M. Munshi: Munshi was a member of the Drafting Committee, not a state.
  - Note: The question seems to be misphrased due to an OCR error. It likely meant to ask which princely state first formed a Constituent Assembly. The answer would be Travancore (1946), but none of the options match this. The options appear to list people instead of states.
  Question 113: Who was the President of India’s Constituent Assembly?
  
  Options:
  (A) B.N. Rau
  (B) V.M. Vithal Rao Margayya
  (C) P. Nehru
  (D) Sachar Vallabhbhai Patel
  
  Correct Answer: None of the options are correct; the correct answer is Dr. Rajendra Prasad.
  Explanation:
  - (A) B.N. Rau: Rau was the Constitutional Advisor to the Constituent Assembly, not its President.
  - (B) V.M. Vithal Rao Margayya: This name does not correspond to any known figure in the Constituent Assembly; likely an OCR error.
  - (C) P. Nehru: Pandit Nehru (Jawaharlal Nehru) was a key member but not the President.
  - (D) Sachar Vallabhbhai Patel: Likely meant to be Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, who was a member but not the President.
  - Note: Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected as the permanent President of the Constituent Assembly on December 11, 1946. The options are incorrect.
  Question 114: Who was the Chairman of the Provincial Constitution Committee?
  
  Options:
  (A) M. Rajagopalachari
  (B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
  (C) B.R. Ambedkar
  (D) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
  
  Correct Answer: (B)
  Explanation:
  - (A) M. Rajagopalachari: Likely meant to be C. Rajagopalachari (Rajaji), who was a member of the Constituent Assembly but not the Chairman of this committee.
  - (B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad: Prasad chaired the Provincial Constitution Committee, which dealt with the structure of provinces under the Constitution. This is the correct answer.
  - (C) B.R. Ambedkar: Ambedkar chaired the Drafting Committee, not the Provincial Constitution Committee.
  - (D) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar: Same as (C), likely a typo in the document.
  Question 115: Who was the Chairman of the Union Constitution Committee?
  
  Options:
  (A) P.R. Bhama
  (B) Jawaharlal Nehru
  (C) Asaf Ali
  (D) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
  
  Correct Answer: (B)
  Explanation:
  - (A) P.R. Bhama: No such person is known to have chaired this committee; likely an OCR error.
  - (B) Jawaharlal Nehru: Nehru chaired the Union Constitution Committee, which dealt with the structure of the Union government. This is the correct answer.
  - (C) Asaf Ali: Ali was a member of the Constituent Assembly but did not chair this committee.
  - (D) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel: Patel chaired the Provincial Constitution Committee and the Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, not the Union Constitution Committee.
  Question 116: Who was the Chairman of the Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities, and Tribal Areas?
  
  Options:
  (A) Jawaharlal Nehru
  (B) Vallabhbhai Patel
  (C) Ambedkar
  (D) K.M. Munshi
  
  Correct Answer: (B)
  Explanation:
  - (A) Jawaharlal Nehru: Nehru chaired the Union Constitution Committee, not this one.
  - (B) Vallabhbhai Patel: Patel chaired the Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities, and Tribal Areas, making this the correct answer.
  - (C) Ambedkar: Ambedkar chaired the Drafting Committee, not this advisory committee.
  - (D) K.M. Munshi: Munshi was a member of the Drafting Committee but did not chair this advisory committee.
  Question 117: When was the first session of the Constituent Assembly held?
  
  Options:
  (A) 6–17 August 1949
  (B) 14–31 July 1947
  (C) 14 May – 16 June 1949
  (D) 16 May – 16 June 1949
  
  Correct Answer: None of the options are correct; the first session was on 9 December 1946.
  Explanation:
  - (A) 6–17 August 1949: Incorrect, as this is after the first session.
  - (B) 14–31 July 1947: Incorrect, as the first session was in 1946.
  - (C) 14 May – 16 June 1949: Incorrect, as this is too late.
  - (D) 16 May – 16 June 1949: Incorrect, as this is also too late.
  - Note: The first session of the Constituent Assembly was held on 9 December 1946, as mentioned in Q111. The options are incorrect.
  Question 118: Which princely state became a part of the Constituent Assembly in 1946?
  
  Options:
  (A) Amuswamymath
  (B) Husa Jawaharlal
  (C) Kamala Choudhari
  (D) Bhagm Udyas Mustul
  
  Correct Answer: None of the options are correct; the likely answer is Travancore.
  Explanation:
  - (A) Amuswamymath: Not a recognized princely state; likely an OCR error.
  - (B) Husa Jawaharlal: Not a state, possibly a miswritten name (Jawaharlal?).
  - (C) Kamala Choudhari: Not a state, possibly a person’s name due to OCR error.
  - (D) Bhagm Udyas Mustul: Not a recognized state; likely an OCR error.
  - Note: Travancore was the first princely state to form a Constituent Assembly in 1946 and later joined India’s Constituent Assembly. The options are incorrect due to OCR errors.
  Question 119: How many members were there in the Drafting Committee of the Constitution?
  
  Options:
  (A) 8
  (B) 14
  (C) 9
  (D) 7
  
  Correct Answer: (D)
  Explanation:
  - (A) 8: Incorrect, as the Drafting Committee had fewer members.
  - (B) 14: Incorrect, far too high.
  - (C) 9: Incorrect, as the number was 7.
  - (D) 7: The Drafting Committee, chaired by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, had 7 members: Ambedkar, N. Gopalaswami Ayyangar, Alladi Krishnaswamy Ayyar, K.M. Munshi, Syed Mohammad Saadulla, N. Madhava Rau, and T.T. Krishnamachari. This is the correct answer.
  Question 120: When was the draft of the Constitution presented to the Constituent Assembly?
  
  Options:
  (A) 26 November 1948
  (B) 24 January 1950
  (C) 26 November 1949
  (D) 24 January 1952
  
  Correct Answer: None of the options are correct; the draft was presented on 4 November 1948.
  Explanation:
  - (A) 26 November 1948: Incorrect, though the draft was presented earlier that month.
  - (B) 24 January 1950: Incorrect, as this is close to the date the Constitution came into effect (26 January 1950).
  - (C) 26 November 1949: This is the date the Constitution was adopted, not when the draft was presented.
  - (D) 24 January 1952: Incorrect, as this is after the Constitution was enacted.
  - Note: The first draft of the Constitution was presented to the Constituent Assembly on 4 November 1948. The options are incorrect.
  Question 121: When was the Constitution of India adopted by the Constituent Assembly?
  
  Options:
  (A) 22 January 1950
  (B) 24 January 1950
  (C) 22 July 1947
  (D) 24 January 1948
  
  Correct Answer: None of the options are correct; the correct date is 26 November 1949.
  Explanation:
  - (A) 22 January 1950: Incorrect, as this is close to the enactment date (26 January 1950).
  - (B) 24 January 1950: Incorrect, also close to the enactment date.
  - (C) 22 July 1947: Incorrect, as this is before the draft was even presented.
  - (D) 24 January 1948: Incorrect, as this is too early.
  - Note: The Constitution was adopted on 26 November 1949, as mentioned in earlier questions. The options are incorrect.
  Question 122: How many days did it take for the Constituent Assembly to finalize India’s Constitution?
  
  Options:
  (A) Gyanasamayar
  (B) Ayushman
  (C) Aaryaved
  (D) Prakash Vichar Samajsan
  
  Correct Answer: None of the options are correct; the answer is 2 years, 11 months, and 18 days.
  Explanation:
  - (A) Gyanasamayar: Not a valid time period; likely an OCR error.
  - (B) Ayushman: Not a time period; possibly a name due to OCR error.
  - (C) Aaryaved: Not a time period; likely an OCR error.
  - (D) Prakash Vichar Samajsan: Not a time period; likely an OCR error.
  - Note: The Constituent Assembly first met on 9 December 1946, and the Constitution was adopted on 26 November 1949, taking 2 years, 11 months, and 18 days. The options are incorrect due to OCR errors.
  Question 123: From which country’s Constitution did India borrow the idea of a written Constitution?
  
  Options:
  (A) United Africa
  (B) Japan
  (C) Canada
  (D) Australia
  
  Correct Answer: None of the options are correct; the correct answer is the United States.
  Explanation:
  - (A) United Africa: Not a country, and Africa did not influence India’s written Constitution.
  - (B) Japan: Japan’s Constitution is written but was not a major influence on India.
  - (C) Canada: India borrowed federalism from Canada, but not the concept of a written Constitution.
  - (D) Australia: India borrowed concurrent powers from Australia, but not the written Constitution.
  - Note: India borrowed the idea of a written Constitution from the United States, which has one of the oldest written Constitutions (1787). The options are incorrect.
  Question 124: From which country’s Constitution did India borrow the idea of a Republic?
  
  Options:
  (A) Gyanasamayar
  (B) Japan
  (C) Britain
  (D) Ayushman
  
  Correct Answer: None of the options are correct; the correct answer is France.
  Explanation:
  - (A) Gyanasamayar: Not a country; likely an OCR error.
  - (B) Japan: Japan is a constitutional monarchy, not a republic, so it did not inspire India’s republican structure.
  - (C) Britain: Britain is a constitutional monarchy, not a republic.
  - (D) Ayushman: Not a country; likely an OCR error.
  - Note: India borrowed the idea of a Republic (a state without a monarch) from France, which became a republic after the French Revolution (1789). The options are incorrect.
  Question 125: From which country’s Constitution did India borrow the idea of Directive Principles of State Policy?
  
  Options:
  (A) Russia
  (B) Australia
  (C) Britain
  (D) America
  
  Correct Answer: None of the options are correct; the correct answer is Ireland.
  Explanation:
  - (A) Russia: Russia (Soviet Union) influenced India’s socialist ideas, but not the Directive Principles.
  - (B) Australia: India borrowed concurrent powers from Australia, not Directive Principles.
  - (C) Britain: Britain influenced India’s parliamentary system, not Directive Principles.
  - (D) America: The U.S. influenced India’s fundamental rights and judicial review, not Directive Principles.
  - Note: The Directive Principles of State Policy were borrowed from the Constitution of Ireland (1937). The options are incorrect.
  Question 126: From which country’s Constitution did India borrow the idea of a federal structure?
  
  Options:
  (A) British Constitution
  (B) Government of India Act, 1935
  (C) Australia
  (D) Japan
  
  Correct Answer: (B)
  Explanation:
  - (A) British Constitution: Britain has a unitary system, not federal, so it did not inspire India’s federal structure.
  - (B) Government of India Act, 1935: This act introduced a federal framework for India, which was later adopted and modified in the Indian Constitution. This is the correct answer. (Note: Canada also influenced India’s federalism, but the 1935 Act is the most direct source.)
  - (C) Australia: Australia influenced concurrent powers, not the federal structure.
  - (D) Japan: Japan’s Constitution did not influence India’s federal structure.
  Question 127: List 1: Match the features in List 1 with the countries in List 2 from which they were borrowed by the Indian Constitution.
  
  List 1 (Features):
  (A) Federal structure
  (B) Rule of law
  (C) Parliamentary system
  (D) Judicial review
  
  List 2 (Countries):
  I. British Constitution
  II. Canada’s Constitution
  III. American Constitution
  IV. Australian Constitution
  
  Options:
  (A) IV, III, II, I
  (B) IV, II, III, I
  (C) IV, I, III, II
  (D) IV, III, I, II
  
  Correct Answer: None of the options are correct; the correct matching is (A) II, (B) I, (C) I, (D) III.
  Explanation:
  - (A) Federal structure: Borrowed from Canada’s Constitution (II).
  - (B) Rule of law: Borrowed from the British Constitution (I).
  - (C) Parliamentary system: Borrowed from the British Constitution (I).
  - (D) Judicial review: Borrowed from the American Constitution (III).
  - Options Analysis:
    - (A) IV, III, II, I: Incorrect (Australia, America, Canada, Britain).
    - (B) IV, II, III, I: Incorrect (Australia, Canada, America, Britain).
    - (C) IV, I, III, II: Incorrect (Australia, Britain, America, Canada).
    - (D) IV, III, I, II: Incorrect (Australia, America, Britain, Canada).
  - Note: The correct mapping is (A) II, (B) I, (C) I, (D) III, which is not listed in the options.
  Question 128: Which part of the British Constitution was adopted in India’s parliamentary system?
  
  Options:
  (A) Westminster model
  (B) P.R. Gopalachari model
  (C) Privy Purse model
  (D) Keshavanand Bharti model
  
  Correct Answer: (A)
  Explanation:
  - (A) Westminster model: India adopted the Westminster model of parliamentary democracy from Britain, where the executive (Council of Ministers) is responsible to the legislature (Parliament). This is the correct answer.
  - (B) P.R. Gopalachari model: Likely meant to be C. Rajagopalachari, but he did not create a parliamentary model; incorrect.
  - (C) Privy Purse model: Privy Purses were payments to princely states, abolished in 1971, not related to the parliamentary system.
  - (D) Keshavanand Bharti model: Refers to the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), which established the Basic Structure Doctrine, not a parliamentary model.
    estion 1: Who proposed the theory of biological evolution through natural selection?
    
    Options: (A) Charles Darwin, (B) Gregor Mendel, (C) William Beaumont, (D) Andrei Shekel
    Answer: (A)
    Explanation: Charles Darwin developed the theory of natural selection in On the Origin of Species (1859). Mendel worked on genetics, Beaumont on digestion, and Shekel is not a known scientist.
    
    Question 2: Who is the founder of the mutation theory?
    
    Options: (A) Mendel, (B) Morgan, (C) De Vries, (D) Darwin
    Answer: (C)
    Explanation: Hugo de Vries proposed the mutation theory, suggesting sudden genetic changes drive evolution. Mendel focused on inheritance, Morgan on genetics, and Darwin on natural selection.
    
    Question 3: Dinosaurs existed in which era?
    
    Options: (A) Paleozoic Era, (B) Cenozoic Era, (C) Mesozoic Era, (D) Sordonic Era
    Answer: (C)
    Explanation: Dinosaurs lived during the Mesozoic Era (252–66 million years ago). Paleozoic predates them, Cenozoic follows their extinction, and Sordonic is not a real era.
    
    Question 26: What is the scientific name of the cow?
    
    Options: (A) Bos indicus, (B) Jaffrabati, (C) Sahiwal, (D) Lal Sindhi
    Answer: (A)
    Explanation: Bos indicus is the scientific name for zebu cattle. Jaffrabati, Sahiwal, and Lal Sindhi are breeds, not scientific names.
    
    Question 27: What is the scientific name of the housefly?
    
    Options: (A) Musca domestica, (B) Aedes aegypti, (C) Pulex irritans, (D) Fasciola hepatica
    Answer: (A)
    Explanation: Musca domestica is the housefly. Aedes aegypti is a mosquito, Pulex irritans is a flea, and Fasciola hepatica is a liver fluke.
    
    Question 28: Mangifera indica is the scientific name of which plant?
    
    Options: (A) Pineapple, (B) Banana, (C) Papaya, (D) Mango
    Answer: (D)
    Explanation: Mangifera indica is the scientific name for mango. The others have different scientific names (e.g., Musa for banana).
    
    Question 29: What is the scientific name of the pea plant?
    
    Options: (A) Pisum sativum, (B) Pisum odoratus, (C) Pisum indica, (D) Pisum arvense
    Answer: (A)
    Explanation: Pisum sativum is the scientific name for the pea plant, famously studied by Mendel. The other options are incorrect or non-existent.
    
    Question 30: What is the scientific study of cells called?
    
    Options: (A) Physiology, (B) Histology, (C) Cytology, (D) Taxonomy
    Answer: (C)
    Explanation: Cytology is the study of cells. Physiology studies organism functions, histology studies tissues, and taxonomy classifies organisms.
    
    Question 31: Which British scientist discovered the cell in 1665?
    
    Options: (A) Robert Hooke, (B) Fleming, (C) Schwann, (D) Robert Brown
    Answer: (A)
    Explanation: Robert Hooke observed cells in cork under a microscope in 1665, naming them "cells." Fleming discovered penicillin, Schwann contributed to cell theory, and Brown discovered the nucleus.
    
    Question 32: Which is the largest type of cell?
    
    Options: (A) Eukaryotic cell, (B) Prokaryotic cell, (C) Macrophage, (D) Ostrich egg
    Answer: (D)
    Explanation: The ostrich egg is the largest single cell. Eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells are categories, and macrophages are smaller immune cells.
    
    Question 33: In which part of the cell are proteins synthesized?
    
    Options: (A) Endoplasmic reticulum, (B) Golgi apparatus, (C) Ribosomes, (D) Lysosomes
    Answer: (C)
    Explanation: Ribosomes are the sites of protein synthesis. The endoplasmic reticulum aids in protein folding, the Golgi apparatus modifies proteins, and lysosomes degrade waste.
    
    Question 34: Which cell organelle is called the "suicide bag" of the cell?
    
    Options: (A) Mitochondria, (B) Nucleus, (C) Nucleolus, (D) Lysosomes
    Answer: (D)
    Explanation: Lysosomes contain enzymes that can break down cellular components, earning them the nickname "suicide bags." Mitochondria produce energy, the nucleus stores DNA, and the nucleolus makes ribosomes.
    
    Question 35: Which cell organelle is found only in animal cells?
    
    Options: (A) Lysosomes, (B) Centrosome, (C) Cell membrane, (D) Mitochondria
    Answer: (B)
    Explanation: Centrosomes, involved in cell division, are typically found in animal cells, not plant cells. Lysosomes, cell membranes, and mitochondria are present in both.
    
    Question 36: Which is the control center of the cell?
    
    Options: (A) Nucleus, (B) Cytoplasm, (C) Lysosomes, (D) Chromosomes
    Answer: (A)
    Explanation: The nucleus houses DNA and controls cellular activities. Cytoplasm is the cell’s medium, lysosomes degrade waste, and chromosomes are DNA structures.
    
    Question 37: Which type of cell division is used to repair injuries in the body?
    
    Options: (A) Mitosis only, (B) Meiosis only, (C) Both mitosis and meiosis, (D) Neither mitosis nor meiosis
    Answer: (A)
    Explanation: Mitosis produces identical cells for tissue repair. Meiosis forms gametes for reproduction.
    
    Question 38: During which phase do chromosomes separate?
    
    Options: (A) Prophase, (B) Anaphase, (C) Metaphase, (D) Telophase
    Answer: (B)
    Explanation: In anaphase, sister chromatids are pulled apart to opposite poles. Prophase prepares chromosomes, metaphase aligns them, and telophase reforms nuclei.
    
    Question 39: Which phase of the cell cycle takes up 95% of the time?
    
    Options: (A) Interphase, (B) Cytokinesis, (C) Metaphase, (D) Anaphase
    Answer: (A)
    Explanation: Interphase, where the cell grows and prepares for division, occupies most of the cell cycle. The others are shorter mitotic phases.
    
    Question 40: How many daughter cells are formed from a parent cell in mitosis?
    
    Options: (A) 1, (B) 3, (C) 4, (D) 2
    Answer: (D)
    Explanation: Mitosis produces two identical daughter cells from one parent cell.
    
    Question 41: How many daughter cells are formed from a parent cell in meiosis?
    
    Options: (A) 2, (B) 3, (C) 4, (D) 6
    Answer: (C)
    Explanation: Meiosis produces four daughter cells, each with half the parent’s chromosomes.
    
    Question 42: Meiosis occurs in:
    
    Options: (A) Somatic cells, (B) Sex cells, (C) Both, (D) None
    Answer: (B)
    Explanation: Meiosis occurs in sex cells (gametes) to produce sperm and eggs. Somatic cells undergo mitosis.
    
    Question 43: The main component of saliva is:
    
    Options: (A) Sucrose, (B) Glucose, (C) Maltose, (D) Amylase
    Answer: (D)
    Explanation: Saliva contains amylase (an enzyme) to break down starches. The others are sugars, not primary saliva components.
    
    Question 57: Sterility or infertility is caused by the deficiency of which vitamin?
    
    Options: (A) Vitamin A, (B) Vitamin K, (C) Vitamin E, (D) Vitamin D
    Answer: (C)
    Explanation: Vitamin E deficiency can cause reproductive issues. Vitamin A affects vision, K affects clotting, and D affects bones.
    
    Question 58: Pellagra is caused by the deficiency of which vitamin?
    
    Options: (A) Niacin, (B) Vitamin B3, (C) Pantothenic acid, (D) Vitamin B2
    Answer: (B)
    Explanation: Pellagra is caused by Vitamin B3 (niacin) deficiency. Note: Option (A) and (B) are the same, as niacin is Vitamin B3. The others cause different deficiencies.
    
    Question 59: What is the best source of Vitamin C?
    
    Options: (A) Meat, (B) Milk, (C) Amla, (D) Carrot
    Answer: (C)
    Explanation: Amla (Indian gooseberry) is rich in Vitamin C. Meat and milk have little, and carrots are high in Vitamin A.
    
    Question 60: Scurvy is caused by the deficiency of which vitamin?
    
    Options: (A) Vitamin A, (B) Vitamin B, (C) Vitamin C, (D) Vitamin D
    Answer: (C)
    Explanation: Scurvy results from Vitamin C deficiency, causing bleeding gums and poor healing.
    
    Question 61: Which vitamin is excreted in urine by humans?
    
    Options: (A) Vitamin A, (B) Vitamin C, (C) Vitamin K, (D) Vitamin D
    Answer: (B)
    Explanation: Vitamin C is water-soluble and excreted in urine. The others are fat-soluble and stored in the body.
    
    Question 62: Deficiency of which vitamin causes bone deformities in children?
    
    Options: (A) Vitamin A, (B) Vitamin B, (C) Vitamin C, (D) Vitamin D
    Answer: (D)
    Explanation: Vitamin D deficiency causes rickets, leading to bone deformities. The others affect different systems.
    
    Question 63: Which vitamin is excreted in urine by humans? (Repeated question)
    
    Answer: (B) Vitamin C
    Explanation: Same as Question 61.
    
    Question 64: Deficiency of which vitamin causes bone deformities in children? (Repeated question)
    
    Answer: (D) Vitamin D
    Explanation: Same as Question 62.
    
    Question 65: Another name for Vitamin B12 is:
    
    Options: (A) Cyanocobalamin, (B) Thiamine, (C) Riboflavin, (D) None of these
    Answer: (A)
    Explanation: Vitamin B12 is cyanocobalamin. Thiamine is B1, riboflavin is B2.
    
    Question 66: What is the total number of teeth in an adult human, including wisdom teeth?
    
    Options: (A) 16, (B) 32, (C) 64, (D) 28
    Answer: (B)
    Explanation: Adults have 32 teeth, including 4 wisdom teeth.
    
    Question 67: The arrangement of teeth from front to back in the human mouth is:
    
    Options: (A) Incisors-Canines-Premolars-Molars, (B) Canines-Incisors-Molars-Premolars, (C) Molars-Canines-Premolars-Incisors, (D) Incisors-Premolars-Molars-Canines
    Answer: (A)
    Explanation: The correct order is incisors (front), canines, premolars, and molars (back).
    
    Question 68: How many teeth erupt twice in a human’s life?
    
    Options: (A) 22, (B) 20, (C) 28, (D) 32
    Answer: (B)
    Explanation: 20 deciduous (milk) teeth erupt first and are replaced by permanent teeth.
    
    Question 69: What is the hardest substance in the human body?
    
    Options: (A) Keratin, (B) Bone, (C) Tooth enamel, (D) Cartilage
    Answer: (C)
    Explanation: Tooth enamel is the hardest substance, stronger than bone, keratin, or cartilage.
    
    Question 70: What is the dental formula for milk teeth?
    
    Options: (A) 2102/2102, (B) 2102/1102, (C) 1202/1202, (D) 1101/1102
    Answer: (A)
    Explanation: The dental formula for milk teeth is 2102/2102 (2 incisors, 1 canine, 0 premolars, 2 molars per quadrant).
    
    Question 71: The most sensitive area of the human tongue for bitterness is:
    
    Options: (A) Tip, (B) Middle, (C) Back, (D) Sides
    Answer: (C)
    Explanation: Bitter taste is detected primarily at the back of the tongue.
    
    Question 72: Where on the tongue does sugar taste sweetest?
    
    Options: (A) Back, (B) Middle, (C) Tip, (D) Sides
    Answer: (C)
    Explanation: Sweet taste is most sensitive at the tip of the tongue.
    
    Question 73: How many taste buds are present on the human tongue?
    
    Options: (A) 2000 to 8000, (B) 5000 to 10000, (C) 1 million to 10 million, (D) More than 10 million
    Answer: (A)
    Explanation: The human tongue has approximately 2000–8000 taste buds.
    
    Question 74: The longest part of the human digestive system is:
    
    Options: (A) Esophagus, (B) Stomach, (C) Small intestine, (D) Large intestine
    Answer: (C)
    Explanation: The small intestine is the longest, about 6–7 meters.
    
    Question 87: What is cutaneous respiration?
    
    Options: (A) Respiration without molecular oxygen, (B) Respiration through the skin, (C) Respiration in the presence of oxygen, (D) Respiration through gills
    Answer: (B)
    Explanation: Cutaneous respiration occurs through the skin, as in amphibians.
    
    Question 88: In aerobic respiration, glucose is broken down into:
    
    Options: (A) Carbon dioxide, water, energy, (B) Carbon dioxide, alcohol, energy, (C) Water, alcohol, energy, (D) Carbon dioxide, energy
    Answer: (A)
    Explanation: Aerobic respiration produces carbon dioxide, water, and energy (ATP).
    
    Question 89: Which is part of both the respiratory and digestive systems?
    
    Options: (A) Pharynx, (B) Trachea, (C) Larynx, (D) Epiglottis
    Answer: (A)
    Explanation: The pharynx is a common pathway for air and food.
    
    Question 90: The correct order of organs in the human excretory system for waste removal is:
    
    Options: (A) Bladder-Kidney-Ureter-Urethra, (B) Kidney-Ureter-Bladder-Urethra, (C) Kidney-Ureter-Bladder-Urethra, (D) Bladder-Kidney-Urethra-Ureter
    Answer: (B)
    Explanation: Waste flows from kidneys to ureters, bladder, and urethra. Option (C) is identical to (B), likely a typo.
    
    Question 91: Kidneys are:
    
    Options: (A) Mononucleic, (B) Binucleic, (C) Polynucleic, (D) None of these
    Answer: (D)
    Explanation: Kidneys are organs, not classified by nuclear number. The question may be misinterpreted.
    
    Question 92: Kidney stones are formed due to:
    
    Options: (A) Excess salt intake, (B) Excess water in kidneys, (C) Protein crystallization, (D) Crystallization of calcium oxalate salts
    Answer: (D)
    Explanation: Kidney stones are primarily calcium oxalate crystals.
    
    Question 93: The yellow color of urine is due to:
    
    Options: (A) Bile, (B) Urea, (C) Cholesterol, (D) Urochrome
    Answer: (D)
    Explanation: Urochrome, a pigment, gives urine its yellow color.
    
    Question 94: Urea is formed in:
    
    Options: (A) Kidneys, (B) Bladder, (C) Liver, (D) Prostate gland
    Answer: (C)
    Explanation: The liver converts ammonia to urea via the urea cycle.
    
    Question 95: The pH of urine is:
    
    Options: (A) 6, (B) 8, (C) 2, (D) 3
    Answer: (A)
    Explanation: Normal urine pH is around 6, slightly acidic.
    
    Question 96: Which organ converts ammonia to urea for excretion?
    
    Options: (A) Spleen, (B) Kidneys, (C) Pancreas, (D) Liver
    Answer: (D)
    Explanation: The liver performs the urea cycle.
    
    Question 97: Nephrology is the study of:
    
    Options: (A) Brain, (B) Kidneys, (C) Liver, (D) Heart
    Answer: (B)
    Explanation: Nephrology focuses on kidney function and diseases.
    
    Question 98: Dialysis is used for:
    
    Options: (A) Spleen, (B) Kidneys, (C) Liver, (D) Heart
    Answer: (B)
    Explanation: Dialysis filters blood when kidneys fail.
    
    Polity Questions (129–142)
    
    Question 129: Police and public order are subjects under which schedule of the Indian Constitution?
    
    Options: (A) Seventh Schedule, (B) Twelfth Schedule, (C) Fifth Schedule, (D) Ninth Schedule
    Answer: (A)
    Explanation: The Seventh Schedule’s State List includes police and public order.
    
    Question 130: Land reforms are under which schedule of the Indian Constitution?
    
    Options: (A) Ninth Schedule, (B) Tenth Schedule, (C) Seventh Schedule, (D) Eleventh Schedule
    Answer: (A)
    Explanation: The Ninth Schedule protects land reform laws from judicial review.
    
    Question 131: How many schedules are there in the Indian Constitution?
    
    Options: (A) 9, (B) 10, (C) 11, (D) 12
    Answer: (D)
    Explanation: The Constitution has 12 schedules.
    
    Question 132: The Indian Constitution has three types of lists: Union List, State List, and:
    
    Options: (A) District List, (B) Panchayat List, (C) Concurrent List, (D) None of these
    Answer: (C)
    Explanation: The Concurrent List allows both Union and States to legislate.
    
    Question 133: How many parts are there in the Indian Constitution?
    
    Options: (A) 22, (B) 32, (C) 42, (D) 52
    Answer: (A)
    Explanation: The Constitution has 22 parts, though amendments have added articles.
    
    Question 134: Which schedule provides special provisions for the administration of tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram?
    
    Options: (A) First Schedule, (B) Second Schedule, (C) Third Schedule, (D) Sixth Schedule
    Answer: (D)
    Explanation: The Sixth Schedule governs tribal areas in these states.
    
    Question 135: Which schedule mentions provisions for disqualification on grounds of defection?
    
    Options: (A) Twelfth Schedule, (B) Eleventh Schedule, (C) Tenth Schedule, (D) Ninth Schedule
    Answer: (C)
    Explanation: The Tenth Schedule addresses anti-defection laws.
    
    Question 136: Which of the following is mentioned in the State List of the Seventh Schedule?
    
    Options: (A) Railways, (B) Posts and Telegraphs, (C) Interstate trade, (D) Public health
    Answer: (D)
    Explanation: Public health is a State List subject. The others are Union List subjects.
    
    Question 137: When was the Ninth Schedule added to the Indian Constitution?
    
    Options: (A) First Amendment, (B) Eighth Amendment, (C) Ninth Amendment
    Answer: (A)
    Explanation: The Ninth Schedule was added by the First Constitutional Amendment (1951).
    
    Question 138: Which schedule is incorrectly matched with its subject?
    
    Options: (A) Second Schedule–Languages, (B) First Schedule–States and UTs, (C) Ninth Schedule–Oaths, (D) Fourth Schedule–Rajya Sabha seat allocation
    Answer: (A)
    Explanation: The Second Schedule deals with salaries, not languages (Eighth Schedule).
    
    Question 139: Which committee recommended the creation of Punjab and Haryana as states?
    
    Options: (A) Fazl Ali Commission, (B) Dass Commission, (C) Shah Commission, (D) Mahajan Commission
    Answer: (C)
    Explanation: The Shah Commission (1966) recommended the reorganization of Punjab and Haryana.
    
    Question 140: In which year were Indian states reorganized on a linguistic basis?
    
    Options: (A) 1947, (B) 1951, (C) 1956, (D) 1966
    Answer: (C)
    Explanation: The States Reorganisation Act of 1956 reorganized states based on language.
    
    Question 141: Which was the first state formed on a linguistic basis?
    
    Options: (A) West Bengal, (B) Andhra Pradesh, (C) Tamil Nadu, (D) Kerala
    Answer: (B)
    Explanation: Andhra Pradesh was formed in 1953 for Telugu speakers, the first linguistic state.
    
    Question 142: Which Union Territories were created by the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019?
    
    Options: (A) Jammu and Kashmir, Leh, (B) Jammu and Kashmir, Ladakh, (C) Jammu and Kashmir, Kargil, (D) Jammu, Ladakh
    Answer: (B)
    Explanation: The Act created two Union Territories: Jammu and Kashmir, and Ladakh.