### Question 1: Who proposed the theory of biological evolution through natural selection?
**Options:** (A) Charles Darwin, (B) Gregor Mendel, (C) William Beaumont, (D) Andrei Shekel
**Answer:** (A)
**Explanation:** Charles Darwin developed the theory of natural selection in *On the Origin of Species* (1859). Mendel worked on genetics, Beaumont on digestion, and Shekel is not a known scientist.
### Question 2: Who is the founder of the mutation theory?
**Options:** (A) Mendel, (B) Morgan, (C) De Vries, (D) Darwin
**Answer:** (C)
**Explanation:** Hugo de Vries proposed the mutation theory, suggesting sudden genetic changes drive evolution. Mendel focused on inheritance, Morgan on genetics, and Darwin on natural selection.
### Question 3: Dinosaurs existed in which era?
**Options:** (A) Paleozoic Era, (B) Cenozoic Era, (C) Mesozoic Era, (D) Sordonic Era
**Answer:** (C)
**Explanation:** Dinosaurs lived during the Mesozoic Era (252–66 million years ago). Paleozoic predates them, Cenozoic follows their extinction, and Sordonic is not a real era.
### Question 26: What is the scientific name of the cow?
**Options:** (A) Bos indicus, (B) Jaffrabati, (C) Sahiwal, (D) Lal Sindhi
**Answer:** (A)
**Explanation:** *Bos indicus* is the scientific name for zebu cattle. Jaffrabati, Sahiwal, and Lal Sindhi are breeds, not scientific names.
### Question 27: What is the scientific name of the housefly?
**Options:** (A) Musca domestica, (B) Aedes aegypti, (C) Pulex irritans, (D) Fasciola hepatica
**Answer:** (A)
**Explanation:** *Musca domestica* is the housefly. *Aedes aegypti* is a mosquito, *Pulex irritans* is a flea, and *Fasciola hepatica* is a liver fluke.
### Question 28: Mangifera indica is the scientific name of which plant?
**Options:** (A) Pineapple, (B) Banana, (C) Papaya, (D) Mango
**Answer:** (D)
**Explanation:** *Mangifera indica* is the scientific name for mango. The others have different scientific names (e.g., *Musa* for banana).
### Question 29: What is the scientific name of the pea plant?
**Options:** (A) Pisum sativum, (B) Pisum odoratus, (C) Pisum indica, (D) Pisum arvense
**Answer:** (A)
**Explanation:** *Pisum sativum* is the scientific name for the pea plant, famously studied by Mendel. The other options are incorrect or non-existent.
### Question 30: What is the scientific study of cells called?
**Options:** (A) Physiology, (B) Histology, (C) Cytology, (D) Taxonomy
**Answer:** (C)
**Explanation:** Cytology is the study of cells. Physiology studies organism functions, histology studies tissues, and taxonomy classifies organisms.
### Question 31: Which British scientist discovered the cell in 1665?
**Options:** (A) Robert Hooke, (B) Fleming, (C) Schwann, (D) Robert Brown
**Answer:** (A)
**Explanation:** Robert Hooke observed cells in cork under a microscope in 1665, naming them "cells." Fleming discovered penicillin, Schwann contributed to cell theory, and Brown discovered the nucleus.
### Question 32: Which is the largest type of cell?
**Options:** (A) Eukaryotic cell, (B) Prokaryotic cell, (C) Macrophage, (D) Ostrich egg
**Answer:** (D)
**Explanation:** The ostrich egg is the largest single cell. Eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells are categories, and macrophages are smaller immune cells.
### Question 33: In which part of the cell are proteins synthesized?
**Options:** (A) Endoplasmic reticulum, (B) Golgi apparatus, (C) Ribosomes, (D) Lysosomes
**Answer:** (C)
**Explanation:** Ribosomes are the sites of protein synthesis. The endoplasmic reticulum aids in protein folding, the Golgi apparatus modifies proteins, and lysosomes degrade waste.
### Question 34: Which cell organelle is called the "suicide bag" of the cell?
**Options:** (A) Mitochondria, (B) Nucleus, (C) Nucleolus, (D) Lysosomes
**Answer:** (D)
**Explanation:** Lysosomes contain enzymes that can break down cellular components, earning them the nickname "suicide bags." Mitochondria produce energy, the nucleus stores DNA, and the nucleolus makes ribosomes.
### Question 35: Which cell organelle is found only in animal cells?
**Options:** (A) Lysosomes, (B) Centrosome, (C) Cell membrane, (D) Mitochondria
**Answer:** (B)
**Explanation:** Centrosomes, involved in cell division, are typically found in animal cells, not plant cells. Lysosomes, cell membranes, and mitochondria are present in both.
### Question 36: Which is the control center of the cell?
**Options:** (A) Nucleus, (B) Cytoplasm, (C) Lysosomes, (D) Chromosomes
**Answer:** (A)
**Explanation:** The nucleus houses DNA and controls cellular activities. Cytoplasm is the cell’s medium, lysosomes degrade waste, and chromosomes are DNA structures.
### Question 37: Which type of cell division is used to repair injuries in the body?
**Options:** (A) Mitosis only, (B) Meiosis only, (C) Both mitosis and meiosis, (D) Neither mitosis nor meiosis
**Answer:** (A)
**Explanation:** Mitosis produces identical cells for tissue repair. Meiosis forms gametes for reproduction.
### Question 38: During which phase do chromosomes separate?
**Options:** (A) Prophase, (B) Anaphase, (C) Metaphase, (D) Telophase
**Answer:** (B)
**Explanation:** In anaphase, sister chromatids are pulled apart to opposite poles. Prophase prepares chromosomes, metaphase aligns them, and telophase reforms nuclei.
### Question 39: Which phase of the cell cycle takes up 95% of the time?
**Options:** (A) Interphase, (B) Cytokinesis, (C) Metaphase, (D) Anaphase
**Answer:** (A)
**Explanation:** Interphase, where the cell grows and prepares for division, occupies most of the cell cycle. The others are shorter mitotic phases.
### Question 40: How many daughter cells are formed from a parent cell in mitosis?
**Options:** (A) 1, (B) 3, (C) 4, (D) 2
**Answer:** (D)
**Explanation:** Mitosis produces two identical daughter cells from one parent cell.
### Question 41: How many daughter cells are formed from a parent cell in meiosis?
**Options:** (A) 2, (B) 3, (C) 4, (D) 6
**Answer:** (C)
**Explanation:** Meiosis produces four daughter cells, each with half the parent’s chromosomes.
### Question 42: Meiosis occurs in:
**Options:** (A) Somatic cells, (B) Sex cells, (C) Both, (D) None
**Answer:** (B)
**Explanation:** Meiosis occurs in sex cells (gametes) to produce sperm and eggs. Somatic cells undergo mitosis.
### Question 43: The main component of saliva is:
**Options:** (A) Sucrose, (B) Glucose, (C) Maltose, (D) Amylase
**Answer:** (D)
**Explanation:** Saliva contains amylase (an enzyme) to break down starches. The others are sugars, not primary saliva components.
### Question 57: Sterility or infertility is caused by the deficiency of which vitamin?
**Options:** (A) Vitamin A, (B) Vitamin K, (C) Vitamin E, (D) Vitamin D
**Answer:** (C)
**Explanation:** Vitamin E deficiency can cause reproductive issues. Vitamin A affects vision, K affects clotting, and D affects bones.
### Question 58: Pellagra is caused by the deficiency of which vitamin?
**Options:** (A) Niacin, (B) Vitamin B3, (C) Pantothenic acid, (D) Vitamin B2
**Answer:** (B)
**Explanation:** Pellagra is caused by Vitamin B3 (niacin) deficiency. Note: Option (A) and (B) are the same, as niacin is Vitamin B3. The others cause different deficiencies.
### Question 59: What is the best source of Vitamin C?
**Options:** (A) Meat, (B) Milk, (C) Amla, (D) Carrot
**Answer:** (C)
**Explanation:** Amla (Indian gooseberry) is rich in Vitamin C. Meat and milk have little, and carrots are high in Vitamin A.
### Question 60: Scurvy is caused by the deficiency of which vitamin?
**Options:** (A) Vitamin A, (B) Vitamin B, (C) Vitamin C, (D) Vitamin D
**Answer:** (C)
**Explanation:** Scurvy results from Vitamin C deficiency, causing bleeding gums and poor healing.
### Question 61: Which vitamin is excreted in urine by humans?
**Options:** (A) Vitamin A, (B) Vitamin C, (C) Vitamin K, (D) Vitamin D
**Answer:** (B)
**Explanation:** Vitamin C is water-soluble and excreted in urine. The others are fat-soluble and stored in the body.
### Question 62: Deficiency of which vitamin causes bone deformities in children?
**Options:** (A) Vitamin A, (B) Vitamin B, (C) Vitamin C, (D) Vitamin D
**Answer:** (D)
**Explanation:** Vitamin D deficiency causes rickets, leading to bone deformities. The others affect different systems.
### Question 63: Which vitamin is excreted in urine by humans? (Repeated question)
**Answer:** (B) Vitamin C
**Explanation:** Same as Question 61.
### Question 64: Deficiency of which vitamin causes bone deformities in children? (Repeated question)
**Answer:** (D) Vitamin D
**Explanation:** Same as Question 62.
### Question 65: Another name for Vitamin B12 is:
**Options:** (A) Cyanocobalamin, (B) Thiamine, (C) Riboflavin, (D) None of these
**Answer:** (A)
**Explanation:** Vitamin B12 is cyanocobalamin. Thiamine is B1, riboflavin is B2.
### Question 66: What is the total number of teeth in an adult human, including wisdom teeth?
**Options:** (A) 16, (B) 32, (C) 64, (D) 28
**Answer:** (B)
**Explanation:** Adults have 32 teeth, including 4 wisdom teeth.
### Question 67: The arrangement of teeth from front to back in the human mouth is:
**Options:** (A) Incisors-Canines-Premolars-Molars, (B) Canines-Incisors-Molars-Premolars, (C) Molars-Canines-Premolars-Incisors, (D) Incisors-Premolars-Molars-Canines
**Answer:** (A)
**Explanation:** The correct order is incisors (front), canines, premolars, and molars (back).
### Question 68: How many teeth erupt twice in a human’s life?
**Options:** (A) 22, (B) 20, (C) 28, (D) 32
**Answer:** (B)
**Explanation:** 20 deciduous (milk) teeth erupt first and are replaced by permanent teeth.
### Question 69: What is the hardest substance in the human body?
**Options:** (A) Keratin, (B) Bone, (C) Tooth enamel, (D) Cartilage
**Answer:** (C)
**Explanation:** Tooth enamel is the hardest substance, stronger than bone, keratin, or cartilage.
### Question 70: What is the dental formula for milk teeth?
**Options:** (A) 2102/2102, (B) 2102/1102, (C) 1202/1202, (D) 1101/1102
**Answer:** (A)
**Explanation:** The dental formula for milk teeth is 2102/2102 (2 incisors, 1 canine, 0 premolars, 2 molars per quadrant).
### Question 71: The most sensitive area of the human tongue for bitterness is:
**Options:** (A) Tip, (B) Middle, (C) Back, (D) Sides
**Answer:** (C)
**Explanation:** Bitter taste is detected primarily at the back of the tongue.
### Question 72: Where on the tongue does sugar taste sweetest?
**Options:** (A) Back, (B) Middle, (C) Tip, (D) Sides
**Answer:** (C)
**Explanation:** Sweet taste is most sensitive at the tip of the tongue.
### Question 73: How many taste buds are present on the human tongue?
**Options:** (A) 2000 to 8000, (B) 5000 to 10000, (C) 1 million to 10 million, (D) More than 10 million
**Answer:** (A)
**Explanation:** The human tongue has approximately 2000–8000 taste buds.
### Question 74: The longest part of the human digestive system is:
**Options:** (A) Esophagus, (B) Stomach, (C) Small intestine, (D) Large intestine
**Answer:** (C)
**Explanation:** The small intestine is the longest, about 6–7 meters.
### Question 87: What is cutaneous respiration?
**Options:** (A) Respiration without molecular oxygen, (B) Respiration through the skin, (C) Respiration in the presence of oxygen, (D) Respiration through gills
**Answer:** (B)
**Explanation:** Cutaneous respiration occurs through the skin, as in amphibians.
### Question 88: In aerobic respiration, glucose is broken down into:
**Options:** (A) Carbon dioxide, water, energy, (B) Carbon dioxide, alcohol, energy, (C) Water, alcohol, energy, (D) Carbon dioxide, energy
**Answer:** (A)
**Explanation:** Aerobic respiration produces carbon dioxide, water, and energy (ATP).
### Question 89: Which is part of both the respiratory and digestive systems?
**Options:** (A) Pharynx, (B) Trachea, (C) Larynx, (D) Epiglottis
**Answer:** (A)
**Explanation:** The pharynx is a common pathway for air and food.
### Question 90: The correct order of organs in the human excretory system for waste removal is:
**Options:** (A) Bladder-Kidney-Ureter-Urethra, (B) Kidney-Ureter-Bladder-Urethra, (C) Kidney-Ureter-Bladder-Urethra, (D) Bladder-Kidney-Urethra-Ureter
**Answer:** (B)
**Explanation:** Waste flows from kidneys to ureters, bladder, and urethra. Option (C) is identical to (B), likely a typo.
### Question 91: Kidneys are:
**Options:** (A) Mononucleic, (B) Binucleic, (C) Polynucleic, (D) None of these
**Answer:** (D)
**Explanation:** Kidneys are organs, not classified by nuclear number. The question may be misinterpreted.
### Question 92: Kidney stones are formed due to:
**Options:** (A) Excess salt intake, (B) Excess water in kidneys, (C) Protein crystallization, (D) Crystallization of calcium oxalate salts
**Answer:** (D)
**Explanation:** Kidney stones are primarily calcium oxalate crystals.
### Question 93: The yellow color of urine is due to:
**Options:** (A) Bile, (B) Urea, (C) Cholesterol, (D) Urochrome
**Answer:** (D)
**Explanation:** Urochrome, a pigment, gives urine its yellow color.
### Question 94: Urea is formed in:
**Options:** (A) Kidneys, (B) Bladder, (C) Liver, (D) Prostate gland
**Answer:** (C)
**Explanation:** The liver converts ammonia to urea via the urea cycle.
### Question 95: The pH of urine is:
**Options:** (A) 6, (B) 8, (C) 2, (D) 3
**Answer:** (A)
**Explanation:** Normal urine pH is around 6, slightly acidic.
### Question 96: Which organ converts ammonia to urea for excretion?
**Options:** (A) Spleen, (B) Kidneys, (C) Pancreas, (D) Liver
**Answer:** (D)
**Explanation:** The liver performs the urea cycle.
### Question 97: Nephrology is the study of:
**Options:** (A) Brain, (B) Kidneys, (C) Liver, (D) Heart
**Answer:** (B)
**Explanation:** Nephrology focuses on kidney function and diseases.
### Question 98: Dialysis is used for:
**Options:** (A) Spleen, (B) Kidneys, (C) Liver, (D) Heart
**Answer:** (B)
**Explanation:** Dialysis filters blood when kidneys fail.
---
## Polity Questions (129–142)
### Question 129: Police and public order are subjects under which schedule of the Indian Constitution?
**Options:** (A) Seventh Schedule, (B) Twelfth Schedule, (C) Fifth Schedule, (D) Ninth Schedule
**Answer:** (A)
**Explanation:** The Seventh Schedule’s State List includes police and public order.
### Question 130: Land reforms are under which schedule of the Indian Constitution?
**Options:** (A) Ninth Schedule, (B) Tenth Schedule, (C) Seventh Schedule, (D) Eleventh Schedule
**Answer:** (A)
**Explanation:** The Ninth Schedule protects land reform laws from judicial review.
### Question 131: How many schedules are there in the Indian Constitution?
**Options:** (A) 9, (B) 10, (C) 11, (D) 12
**Answer:** (D)
**Explanation:** The Constitution has 12 schedules.
### Question 132: The Indian Constitution has three types of lists: Union List, State List, and:
**Options:** (A) District List, (B) Panchayat List, (C) Concurrent List, (D) None of these
**Answer:** (C)
**Explanation:** The Concurrent List allows both Union and States to legislate.
### Question 133: How many parts are there in the Indian Constitution?
**Options:** (A) 22, (B) 32, (C) 42, (D) 52
**Answer:** (A)
**Explanation:** The Constitution has 22 parts, though amendments have added articles.
### Question 134: Which schedule provides special provisions for the administration of tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram?
**Options:** (A) First Schedule, (B) Second Schedule, (C) Third Schedule, (D) Sixth Schedule
**Answer:** (D)
**Explanation:** The Sixth Schedule governs tribal areas in these states.
### Question 135: Which schedule mentions provisions for disqualification on grounds of defection?
**Options:** (A) Twelfth Schedule, (B) Eleventh Schedule, (C) Tenth Schedule, (D) Ninth Schedule
**Answer:** (C)
**Explanation:** The Tenth Schedule addresses anti-defection laws.
### Question 136: Which of the following is mentioned in the State List of the Seventh Schedule?
**Options:** (A) Railways, (B) Posts and Telegraphs, (C) Interstate trade, (D) Public health
**Answer:** (D)
**Explanation:** Public health is a State List subject. The others are Union List subjects.
### Question 137: When was the Ninth Schedule added to the Indian Constitution?
**Options:** (A) First Amendment, (B) Eighth Amendment, (C) Ninth Amendment
**Answer:** (A)
**Explanation:** The Ninth Schedule was added by the First Constitutional Amendment (1951).
### Question 138: Which schedule is incorrectly matched with its subject?
**Options:** (A) Second Schedule–Languages, (B) First Schedule–States and UTs, (C) Ninth Schedule–Oaths, (D) Fourth Schedule–Rajya Sabha seat allocation
**Answer:** (A)
**Explanation:** The Second Schedule deals with salaries, not languages (Eighth Schedule).
### Question 139: Which committee recommended the creation of Punjab and Haryana as states?
**Options:** (A) Fazl Ali Commission, (B) Dass Commission, (C) Shah Commission, (D) Mahajan Commission
**Answer:** (C)
**Explanation:** The Shah Commission (1966) recommended the reorganization of Punjab and Haryana.
### Question 140: In which year were Indian states reorganized on a linguistic basis?
**Options:** (A) 1947, (B) 1951, (C) 1956, (D) 1966
**Answer:** (C)
**Explanation:** The States Reorganisation Act of 1956 reorganized states based on language.
### Question 141: Which was the first state formed on a linguistic basis?
**Options:** (A) West Bengal, (B) Andhra Pradesh, (C) Tamil Nadu, (D) Kerala
**Answer:** (B)
**Explanation:** Andhra Pradesh was formed in 1953 for Telugu speakers, the first linguistic state.
### Question 142: Which Union Territories were created by the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019?
**Options:** (A) Jammu and Kashmir, Leh, (B) Jammu and Kashmir, Ladakh, (C) Jammu and Kashmir, Kargil, (D) Jammu, Ladakh
**Answer:** (B)
**Explanation:** The Act created two Union Territories: Jammu and Kashmir, and Ladakh.
Tags
DAILY TEST